ECO100Y5 Lecture Notes - Lecture 14: Comparative Advantage, Opportunity Cost

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11 Feb 2016

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Absolute advantage - the ability to produce more of a good or service than competitors when using the same amount of resources. Comparative advantage - the ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than competitors. Assume that without trade, you decide to bake 2 pies in an hour and wash 20 dishes. Your roommate decides to bake 1 pie and wash 15 dishes. Without trade you can only consume what your produce. You will specialize in the good in which you have the comparative advantage. With trade your production is going to occur where you specialize (i. e. for you, baking pies) If two parties decide to trade, they will set the price of x between their two opportunity costs. Climate and natural resources (i. e. wine in california) Abundance of labour and capital (i. e. china with lots of. External economy (i. e. being located in a certain area) cheap labour)

Related Questions

The opportunity cost of one more slice of pizza in terms of sodas is the

		the total number of pizza slices that we have divided by the total number of sodas that we have.
		the number of sodas we have to give up to get one extra pizza slice.
		the number of pizza slices we have to give up to get one extra soda.
		the total number of sodas that we have divided by the total number of pizza slices that we have.

1 point

QUESTION 2

A production possibilities frontier shows

		how money can be allocated among two kinds of goods.
		the limits to the future growth of a nation.
		the various combinations of output a nation can produce at a certain time, given its available resources and technology.
		that if the price of one good decreases, the price of the other has to increase.

1 point

QUESTION 3

When a production possibilities frontier is bowed outward, as more of one good is produced, its opportunity cost

		remains constant.
		might increase, decrease, or remain constant depending on how much people value the additional units of the good.
		increases.
		decreases.

1 point

QUESTION 4

When all of the available factors of production are being efficiently employed, the

		the economy is producing at a point within its PPF.
		PPF disappears.
		the economy is producing at a point beyond its PPF.
		the economy is producing at a point on its PPF.

1 point

QUESTION 5

If a nation devotes a larger share of its current production to consumer goods, then

		its PPF will shift inward.
		its economic growth will slow down.
		its PPF will shift outward.
		some productive factors will become unemployed.

1 point

QUESTION 6

A point on the production possibilities frontier reflects an

		the attainable point with full employment of all resources.
		attainable point without full employment of all resources.
		unattainable point without full employment of all resources.
		the unattainable point with full employment of all resources.

1 point

QUESTION 7

When drawing a production possibilities frontier, which of the following is held constant?

		the available factors of production and the state of technology
		the amount of money in the economy
		the prices of goods and services
		the quantity of the goods and services that are produced

1 point

QUESTION 8

As we move along the production possibilities frontier,

		more of both goods can be produced.
		the possibilities of tradeoffs diminish.
		a tradeoff is not possible because nations need all goods.
		the production of one good increases as the production of the other good decreases.

1 point

QUESTION 9

Which of the following is an assumption used when drawing a production possibilities frontier?

i.Human wants and desires are limited to what is available.

ii. Only two goods are considered.

iii. The level of technology is fixed and unchanging.

		I and iii
		ii only
		I, ii, and iii
		I only

1 point

QUESTION 10

To achieve gains from trade, a country

		needs to have an absolute advantage in the production of all goods.
		specializes in producing a good in which it has a lower opportunity cost.
		must produce at a point beyond its PPF.
		should produce at the midpoint of its PPF.

1 point

QUESTION 11

Relative to Al, Joe has ________ if Joe can produce a good at a lower opportunity cost than Al.

		a comparative advantage
		more production efficiency
		a marginal benefit
		a comparative benefit

1 point

QUESTION 12

Does economic growth depend upon which of the following?

i.Improving the quality of labor

ii. Technological advancement

iii. Increasing the amount of capital

		iii only
		ii only
		I only
		I, ii, and iii

1 point

QUESTION 13

In one hour John can produce 20 loaves of bread or 18 cakes. In one hour Phyllis can produce 30 loaves of bread or 15 cakes. Which of the following statements is true?

		John has a comparative advantage in producing cakes.
		Phyllis has an absolute advantage in both goods.
		Phyllis has a comparative advantage in producing cakes.
		John has an absolute advantage in both goods.

1 point

QUESTION 14

As an economy produces more of one of the goods on a bowed out production possibilities frontier, what happens to the opportunity cost of producing the good?

		It decreases.
		It might increase, decrease, or remain constant depending on how much people value the additional units of the good.
		It remains constant.
		It increases.

1 point

QUESTION 15

The production possibilities frontier illustrates the

		goods and services that people want.
		maximum combinations of goods and services that can be produced.
		resources the economy possesses, but not it is the level of technology.
		limits to people's wants.

1 point

QUESTION 16

The United States produced approximately ________ worth of goods and services in 2007.

		$14 billion
		$14 trillion
		$140 billion
		$140 trillion

1 point

QUESTION 17

The fact of increasing opportunity cost when moving on the PPF means that

		to increase the production of one product requires smaller and smaller sacrifices of the other good.
		to decrease the production of one product requires smaller and smaller sacrifices of the other good.
		to increase the production of one product requires larger and larger sacrifices of the other good.
		when the government forces a movement from one point on the PPF to another point, no production is lost.

1 point

QUESTION 18

Other things equal, if India devotes more resources to educate its population than China,

		China will grow faster than India.
		India will be able to eliminate scarcity faster than China.
		India will be able to eliminate opportunity cost faster than China.
		India will grow faster than China.

1 point

QUESTION 19

For Ireland to grow more potatoes, wool production must decrease. This situation is an example of

		zero opportunity cost.
		producing at a point that lies beyond the PPF.
		opportunity benefit.
		a tradeoff.

1 point

QUESTION 20

Moving from one point to another on a production possibilities frontier implies

		increasing the production of both goods.
		increasing the production of one good and decreasing the production of another.
		holding the production levels of both goods constant.
		decreasing the production of both goods.

1 point

QUESTION 21

The United States is one of the richest nations in the world,

		but it can still benefit from specialization and trade.
		so does not need to trade with poor nations to achieve any gains from trade.
		so might not have a comparative advantage in producing any goods.
		so it must have a comparative advantage in the production of all goods.

1 point

QUESTION 22

"Comparative advantage" is defined as a situation in which one person can produce

		more of all goods than another person.
		a good for a lower opportunity cost than another person.
		a good for a lower dollar cost than another person.
		more of a good than another person.

1 point

QUESTION 23

The idea of increasing opportunity cost is reflected in the

		the linear shape of the production possibilities frontier.
		bowed in the shape of the production possibilities frontier.
		bowed out the shape of the production possibilities frontier.
		the positive slope of the production possibilities frontier.

1 point

QUESTION 24

Suppose that after specializing according to comparative advantage, a country is trading with another nation that also specializes according to its comparative advantage. Which of the following statements are true for the first country?

i)It enjoys gains from trade.

ii)It must have an absolute advantage in the production of the good it produces.

iii)It is producing at a point beyond its PPF.

		I only.
		I and ii.
		I and iii.
		ii and iii.

1 point

QUESTION 25

If society moves from a period of time with significant unemployment to a time with full employment, its production possibilities frontier will

		shift rightward.
		not shift because the society moves from one point on the frontier to a point inside the frontier.
		not shift because the society moves from a point inside the frontier to a point on the frontier.
		shift leftward.

1 point

ochresea-lion6

Question 1 If it was impossible to have a comparative advantage, there would be no gains from trade. True False 4 points

Question 2 If the price of Good X is $10 and price of Good Y is $15, the slope of the budget constraint is 1.5. True False 4 points

Question 3 If the demand and supply curves have equal slopes in absolute value, the burden of a commodity tax will be split equally regardless of on whom the tax is placed. True False 4 points

Question 4 Suppose that supply is fixed at 100 units and demand is Q = 500 P. A price ceiling of $100 creates a shortage of 400 units. True False 4 points

Question 5 Housing shortages caused by rent controls are larger in the long run because the supply of housing is more elastic in the long run. True False 4 points

Question 6 Firms should exit the industry if average costs are greater than marginal costs. True False 4 points

Question 7 If a 3.67 percent increase in price causes a 1.97 percent decrease in quantity demanded, then total revenue must fall following an increase in price. True False 4 points

Question 8 Which of the following choices best illustrates the concept of Adam Smith's invisible hand ? A Vietnamese farmer grows rice; an exporter ships it to the United States, and a grocer in New York sells it to a customer. A fishery's stock of fish becomes depleted due to overfishing as boats from around the world converge. A government regulates a firm to clean up the pollutants it has released as part of its production process. An apartment building is built, which provides much needed housing, on the site of the only playground for children in that town. 4 points

Question 9 Figure: Labor Supply and Welfare Refer to the figure. The budget constraint is: ABC. BD. ABDC. ABD. 4 points Question 10 The price of coffee has increased, yet evidence suggests the demand for coffee has been stable. A possible explanation is that: there has been no change in the supply of coffee. there has been increased use of subsidies in coffee production. wages of workers in coffee production might have decreased. wages of workers in coffee production might have increased. 4 points Question 11 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding profit maximization in competitive markets? I. When all firms pursue profits, none of them achieve profits. II. When all firms pursue profits, only the most innovative will achieve profits. III. Production is divided in such a way that total costs of production are minimized. I only II only I and III only II and III only 4 points Question 12 Suppose France can produce four phones or three computers with one unit of labor, and Sweden can produce one phone or two computers with one unit of labor. If France can trade only with Sweden, then the theory of comparative advantage suggests that: France should specialize in producing phones and import computers from Sweden. France should specialize in producing computers and import phones from Sweden. France should produce both phones and computers, and import nothing from Sweden. France should import both phones and computers from Sweden. 4 points Question 13 Potato chips and popcorn are substitutes. A subsidy for potato chips will ______the demand for popcorn and the quantity of popcorn sold will ______. (Table: Barrels of Oil) Refer to the table. What is the total amount of producer surplus (per barrel of oil) earned by all four producers if the market price per barrel of oil is $51? Table: Barrels of Oil Minimum willingness to sell Country a single barrel of oil Country A $32.00 Country B 16.00 Country C 17.25 Country D 56.99 increase; increase increase; decrease decrease; decrease decrease; increase 4 points Question 14 In the market for Good X a necessity good without any good substitutes the workers and capital in the industry can easily find work producing other goods. The burden of the tax is likely to fall: more heavily on buyers, given that demand is more inelastic than supply. evenly between buyers and sellers. more heavily on sellers, given that supply is more inelastic than demand. more heavily on buyers, given that demand is more elastic than supply. 4 points Question 15 A U.S. manufacturer arranges to purchase parts from a German supplier for 500,000 euros in six months. The U.S. manufacturer is concerned that the dollar will depreciate against the euro, meaning the dollar cost of the 500,000 euros will rise. What should the U.S. manufacturer do? lobby the Fed to lower interest rates on six-month T-bills buy a futures contract that fixes the dollar cost of 500,000 euros in six months buy an exchange rate contract that pegs the interest rate to the discount rate on interbank loans sell a naked option to cover the output spread 4 points Question 16 Which of the following scenarios would cause a speculator to buy low and sell high ? Farmers expect to have a bumper harvest of corn next year. Imports of corn begin to flood the country. The government is expected to pass legislation making it mandatory for all vehicles to use corn-based fuels within one year. The government is expected to subsidize corn production for farmers. 4 points Question 17 In a market with a price ceiling which of the following is TRUE? Buyers and sellers experience unexploited gains from trade. Resources are allocated to their most efficient uses. The supply of goods is sold by the sellers with the lowest costs. The supply of goods is bought by the buyers with the highest willingness to pay. 4 points Question 18 Consider the following statements: I. Relative to a no-trade situation, if the United States exported wheat, the U.S. domestic wheat price would rise and domestic production of wheat would expand. II. Relative to a no-trade situation, international trade causes prices of all goods to rise. I is true; II is false. I is false; II is true. Both I and II are true. Both I and II are false. 4 points Question 19 As the price of a good fluctuates, a profit-maximizing firm will expand or contract production along its: average cost curve. average product curve. marginal cost curve. marginal product curve. 4 points Question 20 An increase in demand and a decrease in supply occur in a market. What happens to the equilibrium price and quantity? The equilibrium price decreases; the change in the equilibrium quantity is ambiguous. The equilibrium price decreases; the equilibrium quantity increases. The equilibrium price increases; the change in the equilibrium quantity is ambiguous. The equilibrium price increases; the equilibrium quantity decreases.

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Q5. Table 5.5

Total Output Total Costs

0 10

1 18

2 21

3 23

4 24

5 26

6 29

7 33

8 38

9 44

10 51

In Table 5.5, the marginal cost of the third unit is

a. 2.

b. 4.

c. 3.

d. 1.

Q6. When marginal physical product begins to decline, marginal cost begins to increase.

a. true

b. false

Q7. It is possible for a firm to have positive fixed cost and zero total cost.

a. true

b. false

Q8. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. Marginal cost increases as marginal physical product decreases.

b. Marginal cost decreases as marginal product decreases.

c. Total cost is the difference between marginal cost and total variable cost.

d. Total cost is the sum of marginal cost plus total variable cost.

Q9. The slope of the production function becomes negative when diminishing returns set in.

a. true

b. false

Q10. Table 5.7

Q Total Variable Cost Average Variable Cost Total Cost Average Total Cost

1 10 50

2 50 90

3 40

Refer to Table 5.7. What is the firm's total fixed cost?

a. 20

b. 40

c. 10

d. 30

Q11. When there are economic profits in a perfectly competitive industry

a. firms have no incentive to exit or enter the industry.

b. firms exit the industry.

c. firms enter the industry.

d. the high barriers to entry prevent further competition.

Q12. The market structure of perfect competition is defined by hundreds of firms producing an essential product, with barriers to the entry of new firms.

a. true

b. false

Q13. A single supplier of a good or service for which there is no close substitute is referred to as a(n)

a. monopolistic competitor.

b. strategic competitor.

c. monopoly.

d. oligopoly.

Q14. For the perfectly competitive firm the selling price of its product is determined by

a. the length of time it has been in business.

b. the amount it chooses to spend on marketing.

c. the interaction of market supply and demand.

d. the number of competing firms.

Q15. A company finds that at the MR = MC output level, its total cost is $500, total variable cost is $400, and total revenue is $450. Your advice to the firm is to

a. reduce output to reduce the cost of production.

b. continue to produce, as total revenue covers total variable cost.

c. increase output to reduce the per unit cost of production.

d. shut down immediately.

Q16. For a monopolist

a. P > MR.

b. P = MC.

c. P = ATC.

d. P = MR.

Q17. The perfect competitor

a. chooses the profit-maximizing quantity.

b. chooses the profit-maximizing price.

c. chooses a quantity that will make the most efficient use of his labor and capital resources.

d. produces what he thinks can be sold, regardless of cost.

Q18. In perfect competition, the larger firms will be able to charge a higher price than the smaller firms.

a. true

b. false

Q19. For the perfectly competitive firm, price equals marginal revenue.

a. true

b. false

Q20. For a monopolist, selling more units requires

a. allowing more firms to enter the industry.

b. hiring a more productive labor force.

c. forming a cartel.

d. lowering the selling price.

Q21. Monopolistic competition means

a. monopolies from several countries compete in the global market.

b. a large number of firms producing differentiated products.

c. a large number of firms producing homogeneous products.

d. few firms producing differentiated products.

Q22. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

a. true

b. false

Q23. By saying that firms in an oligopoly are interdependent, we mean that

a. actions by one will prompt reactions by others.

b. if one increases its profits, all others will increase profits as well.

c. all firms sell identical products.

d. if one increases its profits, all others will lose profits.

Q24. Price leadership is a form of

a. barrier to entry.

b. tacit collusion.

c. opportunistic behavior.

d. noncooperative behavior.

Q25. A monopolistically competitive firm in the long run

a. earns positive economic profits.

b. earns negative economic profits.

c. earns zero economic profits.

d. suffers economic losses.

Q26. Monopolistically competitive firms produce a product that is homogeneous.

a. true

b. false

Q27. Which of the following is a characteristic of both perfect competition and monopolistic competition?

a. In the long run, the firm will produce the output which minimizes average total cost.

b. Firms sell a homogeneous product.

c. In the long run, the firm will earn zero economic profit.

d. The firm seeks to differentiate its product from those of its competitors.

Q28. A monopolistically competitive firm uses advertising to

a. lower its costs.

b. differentiate its product.

c. signal its competitors that it is serious about staying in business.

d. motivate its work force.

Q29. For the monopolistic competitor, which is INCORRECT?

a. The profit maximizing rate of output is where the marginal cost curve intersects the marginal revenue curve.

b. The marginal revenue curve is downward sloping and lies below the demand curve.

c. Because the firm has some control over price, its demand curve slopes downward.

d. If the firm in a monopolistically competitive industry were making economic losses, firms would enter the industry.

Q30. Which of the following is TRUE?

a. In the model of price leadership, the dominant firm consistently charges the lowest price.

b. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

c. The strategic dependence that characterizes oligopoly means that no firms can earn positive accounting profits.

d. Price wars are most common in perfect competition.

Q31. Antitrust legislation seeks to correct market failure by ensuring that all firms in the industry earn an economic profit.

a. true

b. false

Q32. Market failures arise when

a. people look out for their own best interests.

b. there is a gap between the social and private costs of producing or consuming a good.

c. firms look out for their own best interests.

d. society seeks to operate at a point on the production possibilities curve.

Q33. Cases prosecuted under the Sherman Antitrust Act are intended to correct market failure arising from negative externalities.

a. true

b. false

Q34.

Figure 8.2

Refer to Figure 8.2. The market equilibrium is Q1. Point Q2 represents the optimal point of production. To reach Q2,

a. consumption of the good could be taxed.

b. a subsidy could be given to consumers.

c. production of the good could be taxed.

d. the industry producing the good should operate as a cartel.

Q35. What would happen in a free market system when production of a good generates negative externalities?

a. There would be a shortage of the good.

b. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be more than the efficient amount.

c. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be less than the efficient amount.

d. There would be a surplus of the good.

Q36. If providing a service results in negative external costs, then

a. the market price is below the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

b. the market price is above the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

c. the market quantity is too low.

d. market forces will always correct the problem.

Q37. The problem of positive externalities can be addressed by having some firms exit the industry.

a. true

b. false

Q38. The first case prosecuted under the Sherman Act was the antitrust case against Microsoft.

a. true

b. false

Q39. If your marginal tax rate is always higher than your average tax rate, then the tax system is a

a. proportional tax system.

b. regressive tax system.

c. fair tax system.

d. progressive tax system.

Q40. Private goods are characterized by the principle of rival consumption.

a. true

b. false

Q41. Collective bargaining is the process by which unions and employers negotiate the conditions of employment and wages.

a. true

b. false

Q42. The marginal physical product of labor is the addition to total revenue a firm experiences when it hires one additional worker.

a. true

b. false

Q43. A firm's marginal revenue product of labor curve is also

a. its labor demand curve.

b. its total revenue line.

c. its long-run input cost function.

d. its marginal cost curve.

Q44. An increase in the selling price of a product

a. increases the supply of labor to the industry.

b. increases the productivity of labor.

c. raises the firm's demand for labor.

d. decreases the supply of labor to the industry.

Q45. If unions succeed at restricting the supply of labor in any one area of the economy, wages in that sector will increase.

a. true

b. false

Q46. The fact that the labor supply curve slopes upward indicates that

a. workers seek to work more hours when the wage rises.

b. the income effect of a wage increases outweighs the substitution effect.

c. workers seek to work more hours when the wage decreases.

d. firms want to hire more workers when the wage rises.

Q47. The upward slope of the labor supply curve suggests that the income effect of a wage increase outweighs the substitution effect.

a. true

b. false

Q48. The number of strikes occurring in U. S. firms has steadily increased over the past 25 years.

a. true

b. false

Q49. Suppose a perfectly competitive firm faces a labor market in which the going wage rate is $480 per week. If the last worker hired has a marginal physical product of 12 units of output per week, what is the selling price of the firm's output?

a. $40 per unit

b. $480 per unit

c. $240 per unit

d. $12 per unit

Q50. If workers in an industry become less productive due to low employee morale, we would expect the

a. demand for workers to decrease.

b. wages in the industry to increase.

c. supply of workers to increase.

d. demand for workers to increase.

ECO100Y5 Lecture Notes - Lecture 14: Comparative Advantage, Opportunity Cost

ECO100Y5 Full Course Notes

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