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ECON101 Lecture Notes - Lecture 13: Economic Surplus

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apricotpanda200
15 Oct 2018
School
University of Alberta
Department
Economics
Course
ECON101
Professor
gordon lee

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Document Summary

Consumer surplus- is the amount the consumer is willing to pay minus the amount the consumer has to pay. It is a measure of the benefits the consumer gets by buying a commodity in the market and paying only one price. Cal(cid:272)ulati(cid:374)g (cid:272)o(cid:374)su(cid:373)er"s surplus: discrete good, consumer surplus can be 0 but cannot be 0, continuous good. If given a table use a discrete goods case, if given an equation use the continuous good case. Consider an amusement park that is trying to chose a price strategy. Its considering 3 options: charge price per ride, charge price per ride and admission fee, charge only admission fee. Early economists, struggling with the problem of what determines the relative prices of products, encountered what they called paradox of value. Many necessary products, such as water, have prices that are low compared to the prices of luxury products, such as diamonds. Prices do not reflect total value to society.

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Related Questions

Michael spends all of his income on coffee and donuts. A coffee costs $2.50 and a donut costs $2.00. At his current consumption level, the marginal utility for coffee is 30 utils, and the marginal utility for a donut is 60 utils. Which statement best describes what Michael needs to do to maximize his utility?

Question 1 options:

1)

buy less of both coffee and donuts.

2)

buy less coffee and more donuts.

3)

buy more coffee and less donuts.

4)

spend the same amount on coffee as he does on donuts.

Question 2

What is it called when the marginal utility derived from the last dollar spent on each good is the same across all goods and the last dollar spent uses all of the available budget for the purchase of those goods?

Question 2 options:

1)

the optimal consumption bundle.

2)

the optimal production bundle.

3)

diminishing marginal utility.

4)

optimal point.

Question 3 (1 point)

What does the economic theory of marginal utility infer?

Question 3 options:

1)

consumers naturally know which consumption choices will maximize their utility.

2)

consumers who watch market trends are better at maximizing their utility than are those who do not watch those trends.

3)

one cannot maximize utility without taking an economics class that explains utility theory.

4)

one cannot maximize utility without doing the math of calculating the ratios of marginal utility divided by price.

Question 4

Kate is addicted to chocolate and does not care how much it costs. In fact, she spends more than $20 a week on chocolate. What can be concluded about elasticity in her buying decisions?

Question 4 options:

1)

Her income elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to one.

2)

Her income elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to zero.

3)

Her price elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to one.

4)

Her price elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to zero.

Save

Question 5 (1 point)

Why does the demand for a good become relatively more elastic?

Question 5 options:

1)

substitutes for the good become more available.

2)

substitutes for the good become less available.

3)

the good becomes more of a necessity.

4)

the time allowed for adjustment is shortened.

Save

Question 6 (1 point)

Assume the price of chicken per pound is $3.49 and that Americans purchase 10 million pounds per chicken every month. If the price of chicken increases to $5.49 per pound, identify what will occur to consumer surplus?

Question 6 options:

1)

consumer surplus increases.

2)

consumer surplus decreases.

3)

consumer surplus creates incentive to save.

4)

consumer surplus creates incentive to spend.

Question 7 (1 point)

What is another name for the difference between the price that consumers are willing to pay for a good and a lower price that they may actually have to pay?

Question 7 options:

1)

profit.

2)

revenue.

3)

consumer utility.

4)

consumer surplus.

Question 8

Adam, Brian, Robert, and Sam all want to attend a football game. The admission price is $48. Adam is willing to pay $59 for the ticket. Brian is willing to pay $39. Robert is willing to pay $45, and Sam is willing to pay $55. Based on this information, who will go to the game?

Question 8 options:

1)

Adam, Brian, Robert, and Sam.

2)

Brian and Robert.

3)

Adam and Sam.

4)

Brian, Robert, and Sam.

Save

Question 9 (1 point)

Lily is willing to pay $10 for one bracelet and $5 for a second. Patty is willing to pay $12 for one bracelet and $2 for a second. If the price is currently $8 per bracelet, identify what is the total consumer surplus after Lily and Patty make their purchases?

Question 9 options:

1)

$8

2)

$6

3)

$7

4)

$5

Question 10 (1 point)

Manfred is willing to shovel one driveway for $25, a second for $30, and a third for $35. Assume that the market rate for shoveling driveways is $32. How many driveways will Manfred shovel, what will be his total revenue, and what will be his producer surplus?

Question 10 options:

1)

Manfred will shovel two driveways for a total revenue of $64 and his producer surplus will be $9.

2)

Manfred will shovel three driveways for a total revenue of $75 and his producer surplus will be $12.

3)

Manfred will shovel three driveways for a total revenue of $96 and his producer surplus will be $5.

4)

Manfred will shovel four driveways for a total revenue of $125 and his producer surplus will be $18.

Save

Question 11 (1 point)

What would the difference between the price that producers receive and the lower price at which they are willing to sell the good be called?

Question 11 options:

1)

producer shortage.

2)

producer surplus.

3)

consumer shortage.

4)

consumer surplus.

Save

Question 12 (1 point)

What will happen when there is an increase in the price of eBook downloads?

Question 12 options:

1)

It reduces the marginal utility derived from each dollar spent on eBooks.

2)

It reduces the marginal utility derived from each hardcopy book purchased.

3)

There will not be a substitution effect.

4)

There will not be a change in the number of eBooks in the set of consumption possibilities.

Save

Question 13 (1 point)

When is price elasticity of demand utilized to measure how an individual changes the quantity they demand?

Question 13 options:

1)

when supply changes.

2)

when product quality changes.

3)

when marketing changes.

4)

when price changes.

Save

Question 14 (1 point)

Assume Mary consumes only tea and pastries. A cup of tea costs 5 euros and a pastry costs 8 euros. Her weekly income is 450 euros. Mary always drinks 2 cups of tea for every pastry she consumes. What is Mary’s optimal weekly consumption bundle?

Question 14 options:

1)

25 cups of tea and 50 pastries.

2)

50 cups of tea and 25 pastries.

3)

58 cups of tea and 20 pastries.

4)

60 cups of tea and 30 pastries.

Save

Question 15 (1 point)

When is producer surplus a positive value?

Question 15 options:

1)

the price the producer is willing to charge equals the market price.

2)

there is no tax applied to the good.

3)

the price the producer is willing to charge is less than the market price.

4)

the price the producer is willing to charge is greater than the market price.

1.

In a perfectly competitive market, in the long run, the marginal cost of a firm becomes equal to its minimum average total cost.

A) True
B) False

2.

Generally, The price a firm charges for its product is equal to its total revenue divided by the number of units sold.

A) True
B) False

3.

In a perfectly competitive firm to maximize profit a firm must make sure that the price it charges does not exceed its marginal cost.

A) True
B) False

4.

Firms in a competitive market can never make economic profits while they may make biasness (accounting) profits.

A) True
B) False

5.

When a perfectly competitive firm is making a positive economic profit its average revenue must be greater than its average total cost.

A) True
B) False

6.

To maximize its profit a firm always produces at the quantity level where it can charge the highest price and earn the greatest revenue; this strategy is consistent with setting is MC equal to price.

A) True
B) False

7.

When a firm in a competitive market is making a positive economic profit its business profit may be positive or negative.

A) True
B) False

8.

In a perfectly competitive market new entries could result in increases in input prices thus making production costs go up.

A) True
B) False

9.

In a perfectly competitive market, in the long run, each firm produces the maximum amount it can produce and charges the lowest price possible. That is why we consider competitive markets efficient.

A) True
B) False

10.

A monopolist always under-produces and charges a price higher than its MC.

A) True
B) False

11.

As the only supplier in the market a monopolist can charge any price it wishes and buyers have no choice but to pay.

A) True
B) False

12.

The marginal revenue is the additional revenue generated by the last unit of labor hired.

A) True
B) False

13.

The price a monopolist charges may or may not be above its average cost but it is always above its MR.

A) True
B) False

14.

When demand curve is a downward-sloping straight line (linear) marginal revenue will be greater than MC at all output leveles.

A) True
B) False

15.

By setting its MR equal to its MC a monopolist determines the output that would maximize its profit.

A) True
B) False

16.

In the long run each competitive firm would produce at the quantity level where its MC is equal to its MR as well as its ATC.

A) True
B) False

17.

A monopoly always makes an economic profit.

A) True
B) False

18.

When a monopoly's ATC is equal to the price it charges it is making normal economic profits.

A) True
B) False

19.

When a monopoly is making a zero economic profit still its MR>ATC.

A) True
B) False

20.

An increase in demand would enable a monopolist to raise its price while reducing its output.

A) True
B) False

21.

The market supply curve in an increasing-cost industry is:

A) a. upward sloping
B) b. downward sloping
C) c. vertical
D) d. horizontal
E) e. none of the above

22.

The total producer surplus is measured by:

A) a. the area between supply and demand curves.
B) b. the difference between the price the consumer is willing and able to pay and the price suppliers wish to charge to maximize their profits.
C) c. the area between the price consumers actually pay and the demand curve.
D) d. the area between the equilibrium market price and the supply curve.
E) e. the consumer willingness to pay as reflected by the equilibrium market price.

23.

. Economists measure economic (social) welfare by the

A) a. net consumer surplus
B) b. sum of consumer and producer surplus
C) c. sum of the net profits made by the industry's competitive firms
D) d. price consumers are willing to pay for one additional unit of a good
E) e. difference between the total consumer surplus and total producer surplus

1).

A consumer spends more time searching for a good when her reservation price is:

increased.

reduced.

fixed.

None of the statements is correct.

2).

In the game shown below, firms 1 and 2 must independently decide whether to charge high or low prices.



Which of the following are Nash equilibrium payoffs in the one-shot game?

(0, 0)

(5, -5)

(-5, 5)

(10, 10)

3).

A risk-neutral individual would:

prefer $5 with certainty to a risky prospect with the expected value of $5.

prefer a risky prospect with an expected value of $5 to a certain amount of $5.

be indifferent between a risky prospect with an expect value of $5 to a certain amount of $5.

prefer a risky prospect with the expected value of $0.50 to $5 with certainty.

4).

Snowpeak Ski Resort offers a price for a lift ticket that is barely over its marginal cost, but the high equipment rental fee keeps generating big profits. Which pricing strategy is the management using?

Price discrimination

Two-part pricing

Commodity bundling

Cross-subsidization

5).

The short run is defined as the time frame:

in which there are no fixed factors of production.

in which there are fixed factors of production.

less than one year.

less than three years.

6).

Fixed costs exist only in:

the long run.

capital-intensive markets.

the short run.

labor-intensive markets.

7).

Top of Form

Non-fed ground beef is an inferior good. In economic booms, grocery managers should:

increase their orders of non-fed ground beef.

reduce their orders of non-fed ground beef.

not change their orders of non-fed ground beef.

neither increase, reduce, nor maintain their current orders for non-fed ground beef.

Bottom of Form

8).

Which of the following pricing strategies is NOT used in markets with special cost and demand structures?

Peak-load pricing

Cross-subsidization

Transfer pricing

Low-price guarantees

9).

A perfectly competitive firm faces a:

perfectly elastic demand function.

perfectly inelastic demand function.

demand function with unitary elasticity.

None of the answers is correct.

10).

The special demand structure that induces a firm to use a cross-subsidization strategy is:

perfect substitution among products.

imperfect substitution among products.

independent demand for products.

interdependent demand for products.

11).

Which of the following factors reduces the need for government involvement in the marketplace?

The presence of externalities

The incentive to rent-seek

The need for public goods

Incomplete information

12).

Which of the following statements is true?

A mineral rights auction is not the same as a common-value auction.

An auctioneer is always indifferent between different kinds of auctions.

The Dutch and first-price, sealed-bid auctions are strategically equivalent.

An English auction always yields lower expected revenues than a second-price, sealed-bid auction.

13).

Which of the following is true concerning negative externalities?

Firms tend to produce more than the efficient level of output.

Society gains because firms do not pay the external costs of production.

Perfect competition is better than monopoly from the viewpoint of society even in the presence of negative externalities.

With negative externalities, a monopoly will always produce an output level less than is socially efficient.

14).

Which of the following is true under monopoly?

P > ATC

P > MC

P = MR

P = ATC

15).

Differentiated goods are NOT a feature of a:

perfectly competitive market.

monopolistically competitive market.

monopolistic market.

perfectly competitive market and monopolistic market.

16).

Producer surplus is measured as the area

below the demand curve and above the market price.

above the demand curve and below the market price.

above the supply curve and below the market price.

below the supply curve and above the market price.

17).

Jaynet spends $25,000 per year on painting supplies and storage space. She recently received two job offers from a famous marketing firm – one offer was for $105,000 per year, and the other was for $85,000. However, she turned both jobs down to continue a painting career. If Jaynet sells 30 paintings per year at a price of $9,000 each:

a. What are her accounting profits?

$

b. What are her economic profits?

$

18).

You are the manager of a monopoly that sells a product to two groups of consumers in different parts of the country. Group 1’s elasticity of demand is -2, while group 2’s is -4. Your marginal cost of producing the product is $40.

a. Determine your optimal markups and prices under third-degree price discrimination.

Instruction: Round your answers to two decimal places.

Markup for group 1:
Price for group 1: $

Markup for group 2:
Price for group 2: $


b. Which of the following are necessary conditions for third-degree price discrimination to enhance profits.

Instructions: You may select more than one answer. Click the box with a check mark for the correct answers and click twice to empty the box for the wrong answers. You must click to select or deselect each option in order to receive full credit.

At least one group has elasticity of demand less than one in absolute value.

There are two different groups with different (and identifiable) elasticities of demand.

We are able to prevent resale between the groups.

At least one group has elasticity of demand greater than 1 in absolute value.

19).

You are the manager of a firm that receives revenues of $60,000 per year from product X and $80,000 per year from product Y. The own price elasticity of demand for product X is -1.5, and the cross-price elasticity of demand between productY and X is -1.4.

How much will your firm's total revenues (revenues from both products) change if you increase the price of good X by 2 percent?

Instructions: Round your answer to the nearest dollar. Include a minus (-) sign if applicable.

$