FINS1613 Lecture 5: FINS1613 Week 5 Notes

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aquamarinegoat534

2 Sep 2018

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Inflation: affects short-term interest rates: current economic activity: affects short-term interest rates, expectations of future interest rates: affects all future interest rates, risk variation with bond term: long-term bonds have higher yields than short-term. Inflation measures how the purchasing power of a given amount of currency declines due to increasing prices. Real interest rate is the growth of purchasing power after adjusting for inflation. Nominal rates include both change in purchasing power and inflation. The anticipated nominal rate includes desired real rate of return and adjustment for expected inflation. The rba determines very short-term interest rates through its influence on the official cash rate, which is the rate at which banks can borrow cash reserves on an overnight basis. The rba can lower interest rates to stimulate the economy: firms can borrow more cheaply, resulting in lower project discount rates and higher project values, economic activity increases as firms pursue projects.

Related Questions

1. Different financial institutions have different levels of service. What is the main reason for this?

a. The Federal regulations relating to the institutions make them provide the services at different levels.

b. Levels of financial service are determined in part by the ownership structure of the financial institution, and different financial institutions have different ownership structures.

c. Financial services require specific expertise and the design of financial institutions favors one type of institution over the other.

d. None of these explain the difference between levels of service at different institutions.

2. Which of the following is not an example of a financial intermediary?

a. Savings and Loans.

b. Commercial banks.

c. Pension funds.

d. Stock markets.

e. All of these are examples of financial intermediaries.

3. Which of the following branches of the Federal Reserve Bank has a permanent seat on the Federal Open Market Committee?

a. New York

b. Cleveland

c. St. Louis

d. Boston

e. None of these.

4. Who owns the Federal Reserve Banking system?

a. No one, it owns itself.

b. The member banks.

c. The US Government.

d. The Chinese Government.

e. The shareholders of the Federal Reserve Corporation.

5. Who is the most important member of the Federal Open Market Committee and often thought of as the second most powerful person in the United States?

a. The President of the United States

b. The Treasury Secretary.

c. The Chairman of the Federal Reserve Bank.

d. The President of the Federal Reserve Bank of New York.

e. None of these.

6. Which of the following markets is the most stable?

a. The market for corporate bonds.

b. The real estate market.

c. The market for Treasury bonds.

d. The New York Stock Exchange.

e. The Chicago Mercantile Exchange.

7. All of the following show interactions between markets except:

a. Purchase of a mortgage issued by Freddie Mac by the Federal Reserve Bank.

b. Sale of stock to raise equity for a new company to an insurance provider.

c. Increase in short term target rates by the Fed on the bond market resulting in stock market increases when announced in the press.

d. Restrictions in bank lending as the result of increasing capital requirements resulting in lower real estate prices and fewer sales on the real estate market.

e. All of these are examples of market interactions.

8. Which of the following acts was repealed by the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999:

a. The Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980.

b. The Banking Act of 1933.

c. The Garn-St Germain Depositary Institutions Act of 1982.

d. The Civil Rights Act of 1964

e. None of these.

9. Which of the following problems was a reason for bank panics prior to the establishment of the Federal Reserve bank:

a. Currency was not uniform in value.

b. Currency was not backed by the full faith and credit of the United States Government.

c. Currency could become worthless if the issuing bank went bankrupt.

d. Lack of regulation of the financial markets often led to bank runs.

e. All of these were elements of the bank panics that occurred prior to the establishment of the Federal Reserve system.

10. Why is the Federal Reserve Bank considered to be relatively but not completely free of political influence in the United States?

a. The Federal Reserve Chairman must be appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate.

b. The Federal Reserve is not owned by the US Government.

c. The Federal Reserve System is designed to divide power among member banks from different regions of the country.

d. The Federal Reserve appointments are for sufficient length of time that it takes at least 8 years for a majority of members to be appointed by one President.

e. All of these are important in defining the degree of independence of the Federal Reserve from political influence.

11. Which of the following examples is an illustration of interest rate risk?

a. A consumer buys a house with a fixed mortgage that will not change for 30 years.

b. A consumer buys a car with a fixed rate loan at 5.99% for five years.

c. A bank borrows funds from the Federal Reserve discount window for 0.25% and lends that money to a consumer for a car or auto loan of longer duration.

d. A consumer opens a passbook savings account.

e. None of these illustrate interest rate risk

12. If the yield curve is said to be steep, this means:

a. Banks will make a lot of money lending at long term rates that are higher than the short term rates at which they borrow money.

b. The bond market expects inflation to increase in the future.

c. The bond market expects that the economy will grow in the immediate future.

d. None of these are conclusions that can be reached from a steep yield curve.

e. a, b and c are all conclusions that can be reached when the yield curve is steep.

13. According to the expectations theory of interest rates:

a. The total interest rate is equal to the sum of the real interest rate and the expected inflation rate.

b. The total interest rate is equal to the sum of the real interest rate, the expected inflation rate, and a series of additional premiums based on the risks taken in the instrument of interest.

c. The Fed sets interest rates, which cannot be changed by the market.

d. The interest rate in the economy is a balance between the supply and demand of funds.

e. None of these are true.

14. If the real interest rate in the economy is 3% and the expected inflation is 2% per year over a five year period, assuming the maturity risk premium is 0, what is the interest rate that the expectations theory would predict for a five year Treasury note?

a. 10%

b. 3%

c. 2%

d. 6%

e. 5%

15. What is the most important economic function of the money markets?

a. To provide an efficient means of liquidity adjustment for businesses, individuals and governments.

b. To provide a place where buyers and sellers can negotiate a price of funds.

c. To provide a social interaction between borrowers and sellers of funds, allowing for easier relationship-based transactions in the future.

d. To provide a place where stocks and bonds can be sold.

e. None of these are important economic functions of the money markets.

16. The ideal instrument sold in a money market has all of the following characteristics except:

a. High liquidity

b. Low Default Risk

c. Are long term obligations

d. Are short term obligations

e. None of these are characteristics of an ideal money market instrument.

17. What is the reason for the 35% rule in the bid process for Treasury securities?

a. It prevents a single entity from controlling the interest rate in the market.

b. It allows regular consumers access to the treasury market through non-competitive bids.

c. It prevents the government from controlling and regulating banks.

d. It prevents the Chinese from buying too many treasury bills.

e. None of these are reasons for the establishment of the 35% rule.

18. What is the name for the risk that a financial institution might not receive promised cash flows in the form of interest and principal payments from its borrowers?

a. Interest Rate Risk

b. Financial Payment and Principal Risk

c. Market Risk

d. Credit Risk

e. None of these are the correct term.

19. The risk that a financial institution might have to sell a lot of assets in a short period of time at below market prices to pay obligations demanded by its creditors is called:

a. Liquidity Risk

b. Market Risk

c. Credit Risk

d. Interest Rate Risk

e. None of these

20. What is the main difference between firm-specific and systemic credit risk?

a. Firm specific risk can be managed by proper underwriting and diversification in a loan portfolio.

b. Systemic risk affects all borrowers.

c. Firm-specific risk is determined by the individual circumstances of the firm involved.

d. Derivitives can be used to manage systemic risk

e. The Federal Reserve Bank of New York uses open market operations to manage firm-specific risk.

21. A credit crisis in the financial markets can improve bank efficiency by:

a. Focusing the bank underwriting department on firm-specific risk factors associated with default.

b. Forcing banks to reduce staffing needs by eliminating wasteful or unnecessary functions.

c. Marking banks compete more rigorously for customers in a tougher market.

d. None of these are reasons that a recession helps improve bank efficiency.

e. Items a, b and c are all reasons that a bank improves efficiency during a recession.

22. A mutual fund that invests only in Treasury funds has which of the following risk exposures?

a. Interest Rate Risk

b. Liquidity Risk

c. Default Risk

d. Treasuryâs are risk free, so a mutual fund that invests in them is also risk free.

e. Credit risk

23. Foreign Stocks carry additional risks beyond those of US companies for US investors. Which of the following risks is not an additional risk that a US investor in foreign stocks faces?

a. Interest Rate Risk

b. Foreign Currency Risk

c. Sovereignty Risk

d. Both a and b are additional risks faced by these investors.

e. All of these risks (a, b and c) are faced by investors in domestic and foreign stocks.

24. According to the theory of Purchasing Power Parity, if the price of a widget in the US is $3.00 and the Euro is worth $1.50, the price of the widget in Germany would be:

a. â¬5.00

b. â¬3.00

c. â¬4.50

d. â¬7.00

e. â¬10.00

25. For many years, the current account of the United States has been in deep deficit. In theory, this should lead to a weak dollar. What factors could counteract the effect of the current account deficit on the strength of the dollar?

a. Foreigners use dollars as stores of value

b. When inflation is expected to be low in the USA and interest rates are high, foreigners want to invest here, driving up the price of the dollar.

c. The Dollar is king in the world currency markets

d. Dollars are backed by the full faith and credit of the US Government and therefore maintain a constant value on the market.

e. None of these explains the relative strength of the dollar in the global currency market.

pinkkangaroo996

Instructions: Use the formula below to compute the problems: âPlease Read the question carefully.â

K_d = Yield (1 â T)

1. Telecom Systems can issue debt yielding 8 percent. The company is in a 35 percent bracket. What is its after-tax cost of debt?

2. After-tax cost of debt: Royal Jewelers Inc., has an aftertax cost of debt of 6 percent. With a tax rate of 40 percent, what can you assume the yield on the debt is?

Cash flow: Assume a corporation has earnings before depreciation and taxes of $100,000, depreciation of $50,000, and that it has a 30 percent tax bracket. Compute its cash flow using the format below.

Earnings before depreciation and taxes _____

Depreciation _____

Earnings before taxes _____

Taxes @ 30% _____

Earnings after taxes _____

Depreciation _____

Cost of preferred stock: Medco Corporation can sell preferred stock for $80 with an estimated flotation cost of $3. It is anticipated the preferred stock will pay $6 per share in dividends.

a. Compute the cost of preferred stock for Medco Corp.

b. Do we need to make a tax adjustment for the issuing firm?

5. Cost of preferred stock: The Meredith Corporation issued $100 par value preferred stock 10 years ago. The stock provided an 8 percent yield at the time of issue. The preferred stock is now selling for $75. What is the current yield or cost of the preferred stock? (Disregard flotation costs.)

6. Costs of retained earnings and new common stock: Barton Electronics wants you to calculate its cost of common stock. During the next 12 months, the company expects to pay dividends (D₁) of $1.20 per share, and the current price of its common stock is $30 per share. The expected growth rate is 9 percent.

a. Compute the cost of retained earnings (K_e). Use Formula 11-6.

b. If a $2 flotation cost is involved, compute the cost of new common stock (K_n). Use Formula 11-7.

7. A firm's cost of preferred stock is equal to the preferred dividend divided by market price plus the dividend growth rate (K_p= D/P_o+ g).

8. The coefficient of variation, calculated as the standard deviation of expected returns divided by the expected return, is a standardized measure of the risk per unit of expected return.

a. True

b. False

9. The standard deviation is a better measure of risk than the coefficient of variation if the expected returns of the securities being compared differ significantly.

a. True

b. False

10. The CAPM is built on historic conditions, although in most cases we use expected future data in applying it. Because betas used in the CAPM are calculated using expected future data, they are not subject to changes in future volatility. This is one of the strengths of the CAPM.

a. True

b. False

11. You have the following data on three stocks:

Stock	Standard Deviation	Beta
A	20%	0.59
B	10%	0.61
C	12%	1.29

If you are a strict risk minimizer, you would choose Stock if it is to be held in isolation and Stock if it is to be held as part of a well-diversified portfolio.

a. A; A.

b. A; B.

c. B; A.

d. C; A.

e. C; B.

12. A portfolioâs risk is measured by the weighted average of the standard deviations of the securities in the portfolio. It is this aspect of portfolios that allows investors to combine stocks and thus reduce the riskiness of their portfolios.

a. True

b. False

13. You are considering two bonds. Bond A has a 9% annual coupon while Bond B has a 6% annual coupon. Both bonds have a 7% yield to maturity, and the YTM is expected to remain constant. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. The price of Bond B will decrease over time, but the price of Bond A will increase over time.

b. The prices of both bonds will remain unchanged.

c. The price of Bond A will decrease over time, but the price of Bond B will increase over time.

d. The prices of both bonds will increase by 7% per year.

e. The prices of both bonds will increase over time, but the price of Bond A will increase at a faster rate.

14. A 12-year bond has an annual coupon of 9%. The coupon rate will remain fixed until the bond matures. The bond has a yield to maturity of 7%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. If market interest rates decline, the price of the bond will also decline.

b. The bond is currently selling at a price below its par value.

c. If market interest rates remain unchanged, the bondâs price one year from now will be lower than it is today.

d. The bond should currently be selling at its par value.

e. If market interest rates remain unchanged, the bondâs price one year from now will be higher than it is today.

15. Suppose the real risk-free rate is 3.50% and the future rate of inflation is expected to be constant at 2.20%. What rate of return would you expect on a 1-year Treasury security, assuming the pure expectations theory is valid? Disregard cross-product terms, i.e., if averaging is required, use the arithmetic average.

a. 5.14%

b. 5.42%

c. 5.70%

d. 5.99%

e. 6.28%

16. Suppose 1-year T-bills currently yield 7.00% and the future inflation rate is expected to be constant at 3.20% per year. What is the real risk-free rate of return, r*? Disregard any cross-product terms, i.e., if averaging is required, use the arithmetic average.

a. 3.80%

b. 3.99%

c. 4.19%

d. 4.40%

e. 4.62%

17. Assume that interest rates on 20-year Treasury and corporate bonds are as follows:

T-bond = 7.72% AAA = 8.72% A = 9.64% BBB = 10.18%

The differences in these rates were probably caused primarily by:

a. Tax effects.

b. Default and liquidity risk differences.

c. Maturity risk differences.

d. Inflation differences.

e. Real risk-free rate differences.

18. You plan to analyze the value of a potential investment by calculating the sum of the present values of its expected cash flows. Which of the following would lower the calculated value of the investment?

a. The cash flows are in the form of a deferred annuity, and they total to $100,000. You learn that the annuity lasts for only 5 rather than 10 years, hence that each payment is for $20,000 rather than for $10,000.

b. The discount rate increases.

c. The riskiness of the investmentâs cash flows decreases.

d. The total amount of cash flows remains the same, but more of the cash flows are received in the earlier years and less are received in the later years.

e. The discount rate decreases.

19. Assume that inflation is expected to decline steadily in the future, but that the real risk-free rate, r*, will remain constant. Which of the following statements is CORRECT, other things held constant?

a. If the pure expectations theory holds, the Treasury yield curve must be downward sloping.

b. If the pure expectations theory holds, the corporate yield curve must be downward sloping.

c. If there is a positive maturity risk premium, the Treasury yield curve must be upward sloping.

d. If inflation is expected to decline, there can be no maturity risk premium.

e. The expectations theory cannot hold if inflation is decreasing.

20. Disregarding risk, if money has time value, it is impossible for the present value of a given sum to exceed its future value.

a. True

b. False

FINS1613 Lecture 5: FINS1613 Week 5 Notes

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