ECO105Y1 Chapter Notes - Chapter 3: Sunk Costs, Marginal Cost, Opportunity Cost

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30 Nov 2017

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Marginal cost: additional opportunity cost of increasing quantity supplied. To buy inputs, a business must pay the price matching the best opportunity cost of the input owner. Sunk costs: past expenses that cannot be recovered. Cannot be reversed are not part of opportunity costs. The same no matter which fork in the road you take. Supply: businesses" willingness to produce a particular product or service because price covers all opportunity costs. Quantity supplied: quantity you actually plan to supply at a given price. Marginal opportunity cost: complete term for any cost relevant to a smart decision. Increasing marginal opportunity cost happens because inputs are not equally productive in all activities. Inputs equally productive= marginal opportunity costs ae constant. Law of supply: if the price of a product or service rises, qs increases. Market supply: sum of supplies of all businesses willing to produce a particular product or service.

Related Questions

1) For each of the following goods, state whether it is a normal good, a luxury, a necessity, or an inferior good. (Sugar)<?xml:namespace prefix = o ns = "urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office" />

a) Inferior. Increases in income lead to less use of sugar. However, rich people do not use much less sugar than poor people, so elasticity is positive but greater than 1.

b) Inferior. Increases in income lead to slightly more use of sugar. However, rich people do not use much more sugar than poor people, so elasticity is positive but less than 1.

c) Normal and necessity. Increases in income lead to slightly more use of sugar. However, rich people do not use much more sugar than poor people, so elasticity is positive and greater than 1.

d) Normal and necessity. Increases in income lead to slightly more use of sugar. However, rich people do not use much more sugar than poor people, so elasticity is positive but less than 1.

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2) A perfectly competitive firm sells its good for $24. If marginal cost is three times the quantity produced, how much does the firm produce? Why?

a) Assuming perfect competition, the firm is producing where MR = MC. If the price is $24, and MC is three times the quantity, it is producing 72 units.

b) Assuming perfect competition, the firm is producing where MC is twice MR. If the price is $24, then MC = $48. This means that the firm is producing 12 units.

c) Assuming perfect competition, we do not have enough information to determine how much the firm is producing.

d) Assuming perfect competition, the firm is producing where MR = MC=P. Since price is $24, MR also is $24. If MC is three times the quantity, it is producing 8 units

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3) State the law of supply.

a) Quantity supplied rises as price increases, other things constant. Quantity supplied falls as price decreases, other things constant.

b) Supply increases as price falls. Supply decreases as price rises.

c) Quantity supplied rises as price falls, other things constant. Quantity supplied falls as price increases, other things constant.

d) Supply increases as price increases. Supply decreases as price decreases

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4) If marginal cost is increasing, what do we know about average cost?

a) If marginal cost is increasing, average costs could be rising, falling, or constant. The direction of average costs depends upon whether marginal cost is higher or lower than average cost.

b) If marginal cost is increasing, average costs are rising. As the cost of the next item produced is rising, the average cost of all the items produced must also be rising.

c) If marginal cost is increasing, average costs are falling. Marginal costs only increase at very high levels of production. When items are mass-produced (because of economies of scale) their average costs always fall, even when marginal costs begin to increase.

d) Average cost is constant and always lower than marginal cost because of the law of decreasing marginal productivity. As more items are produced marginal costs increase (the same as productivity decreasing), but average costs remain constant because the total number of items produced is also increasing

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5) (The president of Lebanon Valley College proposed the following tuition program: provide a 50 percent tuition reduction for those graduating in the top 10 percent of their high school class, 33 percent reduction for those in the top 20 percent, and 25 percent reduction for those in the top 30 percent. All scholarship recipients were also required to maintain a minimum GPA. The comptroller estimated that the elasticity of demand for these students was greater than 1.)

Why did the program distinguish among top-performing students?

A) The program distinguished among top students because they were the least likely to respond to scholarships, keeping expenses related to scholarships down.

B) The program distinguished among top students because the top students demanded greater scholarships. The only way to achieve equilibrium was to supply more scholarships to these students.

C) The program distinguished among top students because their elasticities likely differed. The top 10 percent were likely being offered scholarships at other academic institutions, giving them greater choices, which made their elasticities greater.

D) The program distinguished among top students because their elasticities likely differed. The top 10 percent were likely being offered scholarships at other academic institutions, giving them greater choices, which made their elasticities lower.

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6) Say that equilibrium price fell and quantity remained constant. What would you say was the most likely cause?

a) The supply curve shifted left and the demand curve shifted left.

b) The supply curve shifted right and the demand curve shifted right.

c) The supply curve shifted right and the demand curve shifted left.

d) The supply curve shifted left and the demand curve shifted right.

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7) A firm has just decreased its price by 10 percent over last year's price, and it found that quantity sold decreased 20%. What The firm comes to you and wants to know its price elasticity of demand ?

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8) Name two advantages of the behavioral model.

Select all that apply.

a) They better match observed behavior.

b) Each model depends on a specific context and they are not easily generalized to other contexts.

c) Broader building blocks free researchers to look for more patterns in the data.

d) Irrational behavior results in complicated models that are often difficult to solve.

e) They assume people are rational, which better matches reality.

f) All economists agree the assumptions of the behavioral model are realistic.

viridianweasel299

_____ 1. Suppose you make silver jewelry. If the price of silver falls, we would expect you to:

a. be willing and able to produce less jewelry than before at each possible price.

b. be willing and able to produce more jewelry than before at each possible price.

c. face greater demand for your jewelry.

d. face a weaker demand for your jewelry.

_____ 2. If suppliers expect the price of their product to fall in the future, then they will:

a. increase supply (supply curve shifts out) now.

b. decrease supply (supply curve shifts in) now.

c. increase supply in the future, but not now.

d. decrease supply in the future, but not now.

_____ 3. Consider the market for portable air conditioners, initially in equilibrium. When a heatwave strikes, the equilibrium price:

a. increases and equilibrium quantity decreases.

b. decreases, and the equilibrium quantity increases.

c. and quantity both increase.

d. and quantity both decrease.

_____ 4. Buyers can buy all they want to buy and sellers can sell all they want to sell at:

a. prices at and above the equilibrium price.

b. prices at and below the equilibrium price.

c. prices above and below the equilibrium price, but not at the equilibrium price.

d. the equilibrium price, but not at prices above or below the equilibrium price.

_____ 5. The law of supply and demand states that:

a. demand and supply curves shift out as time goes by.

b. the price of a goodwill rise in response to excess demand for that good.

c. when the supply curve for good shifts, the demand curve for that good shifts in response.

d. the equilibrium price of goodwill be rising more often than it will be falling.

_____ 6. If Doritos and Cheetos are substitutes, a rise in the price of Cheetos will cause:

a. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to fall and the price of Doritos to rise.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to rise.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to fall.

d. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to rise and the price of Doritos to fall.

_____ 7. New production technology is perfected that allows auto manufacturers to build an automobile using half the labor hours formerly needed. As a result:

a. the equilibrium quantity of automobiles increases and the price decreases.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles increase.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles decreases.

d. there is likely no change in the number of automobiles produced.

_____ 8. The U.S. government announces that it will raise the interest rate on college student loans beginning in January of next year. The immediate market impact is:

a. the demand curve for student loans shifts out.

b. the supply curve for student loans shifts out.

c. we anticipate that more student loans will be completed next year than this year.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 9. What curve shift produces a fall in price and increase in quantity exchanged?

a. An inward shift in the demand curve.

b. An inward shift in the supply curve.

c. An outward shift in the supply curve.

d. An outward shift in the demand curve.

_____ 10. We note that fewer motorcycles were sold this year than last and that the price is also lower. What event could have caused this outcome?

a. A technological change that improved the fuel efficiency of motorcycles.

b. A rise in the wages paid to motorcycle manufacturing workers.

c. A motorcycle craze due to the popularity of Sons of Anarchy.

d. Increasing concerns about health impacts from breathing motorcycle exhaust.

_____ 11. The price that results in quantity supplied equaling quantity demanded is the optimal (best) price because it:

a. maximizes the combined welfare of buyers and sellers.

b. maximizes the cost of the seller.

c. minimizes the expenditure of buyers.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 12. Consumer surplus is the:

a. quantity of good consumers get without paying anything.

b. amount a consumer pays minus the amount the consumer is willing to pay.

c. amount a consumer is willing to pay minus the amount the consumer pays.

d. value of a good to a consumer.

_____ 13. In a market, the marginal buyer is the one:

a. whose willingness to pay is higher than all other buyers and potential buyers.

b. whose willingness to pay is lower than all other buyers and potential buyers.

c. who is willing to buy exactly one unit of the good.

d. who would be the first to leave the market if the price were any higher.

_____ 14. If a consumer is willing and able to pay $20 for a particular good and if she actually pays $16 for the good, then her consumer surplus is:

a. $4.

b. $16.

c. $20.

d. $36.

_____ 15. Suppose there is an early freeze in California that reduces the size of the orange crop. What happens to consumer surplus in the market for oranges?

a. Consumer surplus increases.

b. Consumer surplus decreases.

c. Consumer surplus is not affected by this change.

d. We would have to know whether the demand for oranges is elastic or inelastic.

_____ 16. Producer surplus is the area on a supply/demand graph:

a. under the supply curve.

b. between the supply and demand curves.

c. below the price line and above the supply curve.

d. under the demand curve and above the price line.

_____ 17. Economists typically measure economic efficiency using:

a. total producer and consumer surplus.

b. profits to firms.

c. the quantity supplied by sellers.

d. the price paid by buyers.

_____ 18. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Efficiency and equality are both maximized when total surplus is maximized.

b. Efficiency deals with the size of the economic pie; equality with how fairly the pie is sliced.

c. Efficiency is more difficult to evaluate than equality.

d. Equality is judged on positive grounds; efficiency requires normative judgments.

_____ 19. The price elasticity of demand measures how much:

a. quantity demanded a response to changes in price.

b. quantity demanded a response to changes in income.

c. price responds to a change in demand.

d. Both a and c are correct

_____ 20. Goods with many close substitutes tend to have:

a. less elastic demands.

b. more elastic demands.

c. price elasticities of demand that are unit elastic.

d. income elasticities that are negative.

Short Answer Questions:

All of the following questions are based on the data shown here for coffee demand and supply at a fictional Columbus coffee shop called Go-bucks.

Price Quantity Quantity

per Cup Demanded Supplied

$1.60 1,700 1,220

$1.80 1,555 1,300

$2.00 1,400 1,400

$2.20 1,235 1,520

$2.40 1,060 1,660

$2.60 875 1,820

_____ 21. (6 points) Using the mid-point formula, calculate the price elasticity of demand as the price increases from $1.60 to $1.80.

_____ 22. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $1.80 to $2.00.

_____ 23. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $2.40 to $2.60.

24. (4 points) Over which price range is demand inelastic? Over which price range is demand elastic? Does this follow the trend noted in class?

_____________________________________________________________________________

_____ 25. (6 points) Turning to the supply side, calculate the price elasticity of supply as the price increases from $2.20 to $2.40.

26. (2 points) How would you describe the price elasticity of supply over this range?

_____________________________________________________________________________

graychimpanzee865

""Please give answer with simple explaination""""Please give answer with simple explaination""""Please give answer with simple explaination""

1. In every society, choices must be made because resources are

a. Infinite, but economic want are finite

b. Finite, but economic wants are insatiable

c. Unlimited, but economic wants limited

d. Limited, and so are economic wants

2. Which question is an illustration of a microeconomic question

a. Is the quantity of wine purchased in one year dependent upon the price of wine?

b. Does government spending influence the total level of employment in the economy?

c. Is the purchasing power of the dollar higher or lower today than it was in 2000?

d. Is capitalism superior to socialism?

3. The purpose of the ceteris paribus assumption used in economic analysis is to :

a. Avoid making normative statements

b. A void the post hoc, ergo propter hoc fallacy

c. Make sure that all relevant factors are considered

d. Restrict the analysis to effect of a single economic factor

4. The profit motive is

a. Ineffective at producing consumer goods

b. Inherently beneficial to society if left alone to pursue its own self interests

c. Effective at producing goods when consumption is non-rival or non-excludable

d. Is often at odds with societies interests

5. In the system of central planning

a. There is repaid of the infrastructure

b. There is severe inflation in wholesale and retail prices

c. Economic growth leads to widespread unemployment among workers

d. The outputs of some industries become inputs for other industries

6. The market system communicates changes in supply and demand and elicits appropriate responses from businesses and resource suppliers. This is known as the:

a. Rationing function of prices

b. Guiding function of prices

c. Monetary function of prices

d. Circular flow of income

7. An increase in the quantity of automobiles supplied would be caused by which be caused by which of the following?

a. An increase in the demand for automobiles

b. A decrease in the demand for automobiles

c. Higher prices for steel

d. Higher prices for gasoline

8. All of the following would cause an increase in the demand for private airplanes at a given price, except a:

a. Decrease in interest rates

b. Increase in consumer incomes

c. Decrease in taxes on luxury goods

d. Decrease in the costs of constructing private airplanes

9. In modern economies of mass production,

a. Biological need motivates most consumption

b. The intrinsic value of goods and services motivates mass consumption

c. Affluence makes relative depravation meaningless

d. Invidious comparison motivates much of mass consumption

10. a more equal distribution of income in the United States would result in greater total consumer satisfaction. This statement is based on the concept that:

a. Income inequality is unfair

b. Income inequality is undemocratic

c. Income equality stimulates efficiency

d. Incomes are subject to diminishing marginal utility

11. While command systems suffer from incentive problems, market economies

a. Have no incentive problems

b. Suffer from incentive problems of their own

c. Tend to resolve all problems by their own dynamics

d. Have problems to the degree that there is government interference.

12. What economic concepts can be used to explain the reason that a new car purchased by a consumer and driven off a new car lot decrease in value almost immediately compared with the value of the same make and model of a car still on the new car lot?

a. Positive and negative externalities

b. Liability rules and lawsuits

c. The Coase theorem and moral hazard

d. Asymmetric information and adverse selection

13. Consider a situation where the U.S. Congress wants to place a special tax on private airplanes to increase tax revenue. This tax would only be effective in raising new tax revenues if the price elasticity of:

a. Supply is elastic

b. Supply is inelastic

c. Demand is elastic

d. Demand is inelastic

14. Under what circumstances would you expect economic profits to be zero in a particular industry?

a. During a recession

b. When there is little competition in the industry

c. When the industry is neither expanding nor contracting

d. When the demand for the product being produced is increasing

16. If economic resources are perfectly interchangeable between the two products shown on a production possibilities graph:

a. The economy will always be at full employment

b. More of one product can be produced without producing less fo the other product

c. The production possibilities curve would be straight line

d. The two products are of equal value to the economy

17. Opportunity cost is best defined as:

a. Marginal cost minis marginal benefit

b. The time spent on an economic activity

c. The value of the best foregone alternative

d. The money cost of an economic decision

18. All of the following would affect the position of a country production possibilities curve expect:

a. The quality of labor

b. The level of employment

c. The amount of the capital stock

d. Technological progress

19. The post hoc, ergo propter hoc fallacy consists of:

a. Using an example to a different point

b. Inferring causality from chronological sequence

c. Jumping to conclusions from an inadequate number of cases

d. Arguing for or against the person rather than the position being supported

20. Which is one of the five fundamental question that needs to be answered by economic system

a. What is the rate of unemployment?

b. Who will be the richest person in the economy?

c. What goods and services will be produced?

d. Why are the prices for goods and services so high?

21. The institution of private property is sustained over time by:

a. Competition

b. Bequests

c. Self-interest

d. Free enterprise

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ECO105Y1 Chapter Notes - Chapter 3: Sunk Costs, Marginal Cost, Opportunity Cost

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