ECO100Y5 Chapter Notes - Chapter 23: Stagflation, Unemployment Benefits, Nairu

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Chapter 23 full employment & new long-run equilibrium. E(cid:373)ploy(cid:373)e(cid:374)t, price level, i(cid:374)flatio(cid:374), gover(cid:374)(cid:373)e(cid:374)t regulatio(cid:374)s, cha(cid:374)ges i(cid:374) co(cid:373)petitio(cid:374) The level of employment where there is no cyclical unemployment. The level of output or real gdp at full employment. The economy will begin to experience increasing rates of inflation. Full employment on an aggregate supply & demand curve. The blue arrow above shows the shift left in the aggregate demand curve. Due to this shift, the economy is no longer producing at full employment & there is cyclical unemployment. The economy might be in a recession (a significant decline in production & employment; the decline is spread throughout the economy; and it lasts more than a few months). When the cause of unemployment or inflation is change in the levels of total spending, we will see a tradeoff between the rates of unemployment and inflation. This tradeoff does not exist when supply fluctuates, nor does it exist in the long run.

Related Questions

TRUE / FALSE

1. True False In the aggregate expenditures model presented in the textbook,

investment is assumed to rise with increases in real GDP and fall with decreases in real GDP.

2. True False When C + I_g = GDP in a private closed economy, S = I_g and there are no unplanned changes in inventories.

3. True False The risk-free interest rate is the rate on long-term U.S. government bonds.

4. True False Bond prices and interest rates are directly or positively related.

5. True False The public debt is the accumulation of all deficits and surpluses that have occurred through time.

6. True False The M₂ money supply may be larger or smaller than the M₁ money supply depending on the size of small-denominated time deposit balances and Money Market Mutual Fund balances held by individuals.

7. True False Excess reserves are the amount by which required reserves exceed actual reserves.

8. True False The public debt is held as Treasury bills, Treasury notes, Treasury bonds, and U.S. savings bonds.

9. True False The equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of real GDP occur at the intersection of the aggregate demand curve and the aggregate supply curve.

10. True False Investment is highly stable; it increases over time at a very steady rate.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

11. A recessionary expenditure gap is:

A. the amount by which the full-employment GDP exceeds the level of aggregate expenditures.

B. the amount by which equilibrium GDP falls short of the full-employment GDP.

C. the amount by which investment exceeds saving at the full-employment GDP.

D. the amount by which aggregate expenditures exceed the full-employment level of GDP.

12. The multiplier effect indicates that:

A. a decline in the interest rate will cause a proportionately larger increase in investment.

B. a change in spending will change aggregate income by a larger amount.

C. a change in spending will increase aggregate income by the same amount.

D. an increase in total income will generate a larger change in aggregate expenditures.

13. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?

There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.

B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.

C. There are 14 members of the Federal Reserve Board.

D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.

14. If the nominal interest rate is 18 percent and the real interest rate is 6 percent, the inflation rate is:

A. 18 percent.

B. 24 percent.

C. 12 percent.

D. 6 percent.

15.

Refer to the above diagram for a private closed economy. The equilibrium level of GDP is:

A. $400.

B. $300.

C. $200.

D. $100.

16. Which of the following represents the most expansionary fiscal policy?

A. a $10 billion tax cut

B. a $10 billion increase in government spending

C. a $10 billion tax increase

D. a $10 billion decrease in government spending

17.

Refer to the above table. The economy shown is a:

A. private economy.

B. private open economy.

C. mixed closed economy.

D. mixed open economy.

18. Currency held in the vault of First National Bank is:

A. counted as part of M₁.

B. counted as part of M₂, but not M₁.

C. only counted as part of M₁ if it was deposited into a checking account.

D. not counted as part of the money supply.

19. If the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies, we would expect:

A. the multiplier to decrease.

B. the country's exports and imports to both fall.

C. the country's net exports to rise.

D. the country's net exports to fall.

20. The most important determinant of consumption and saving is the:

A. level of bank credit.

B. level of income.

C. interest rate.

D. price level.

21. The multiple by which the commercial banking system can increase the supply of money on the basis of each dollar of excess reserves is equal to:

A. the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.

B. 1 minus the required reserve ratio.

C. the reciprocal of the income velocity of money.

D. 1/MPS.

22. Which one of the following would not shift the aggregate demand curve?

A. a change in the price level

B. depreciation of the international value of the dollar

C. a decline in the interest rate at each possible price level

D. an increase in personal income tax rate

23. The cyclically-adjusted budget tells us:

A. that in a full-employment economy the Federal budget should be in balance.

B. that tax revenues should vary inversely with GDP.

C. what the size of the Federal budget deficit or surplus would be if the economy was at full

employment.

D. the actual budget deficit or surplus realized in any given year.

24. The aggregate supply curve:

A. is explained by the interest rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.

B. gets steeper as the economy moves from the top of the curve to the bottom of the curve.

C. shows the various amounts of real output that businesses will produce at each price level.

D. is downsloping because real purchasing power increases as the price level falls.

25.

Refer to the above diagram. If the equilibrium price level is P₁, then:

A. aggregate demand is AD₂.

B. the equilibrium output level is Q₃.

C. the equilibrium output level is Q₂.

D. producers will supply output level Q₁

26. Discretionary fiscal policy refers to:

A. any change in government spending or taxes that destabilizes the economy.

B. the authority that the President has to change personal income tax rates.

C. intentional changes in taxes and government expenditures made by Congress to stabilize the economy.

D. the changes in taxes and transfers that occur as GDP changes.

27.

Refer to the above diagram. Which tax system has the most built-in stability?

A. T₄

B. T₃

C. T₂

D. T₁

28.

Refer to the given graph. A shift of the consumption schedule from C₁ to C₂ might be caused by a(n):

A.	recession.

B.	wealth effect of an increase in stock market prices.

C.	increase in income tax rates.

D.	increase in saving.

29. When a bank loan is repaid the supply of money:

A. is constant, but its composition will have changed.

B. is decreased.

C. is increased.

D. may either increase or decrease.

30. The Federal budget deficit is found by:

A. subtracting government tax revenues plus government borrowing from government spending in a particular year.

B. subtracting government tax revenues from government spending in a particular year.

C. cumulating the differences between government spending and tax revenues over all years since the nation's founding.

D. subtracting government revenues from the noninvestment-type government spending in a particular year.

31.

Refer to the above information. Money supply M₁ for this economy is:

A. $ 60.

B. $ 70.

C. $ 130.

D. $ 140.

32. Which of the following statements is true as a result of Federal Reserve efforts to rescue the financial industry from the financial crisis of 2007 and 2008?

From February 2008, to May 2009, the Fed oversaw the consolidation of 20 major financial institutions into fewer than a dozen.

B. From March 2008, to February 2009, the Fed experienced a 50 percent decline in the value of assets held.

C. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed assets more than doubled to nearly $2 trillion.

D. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed lending caused the U.S. public debt to rise by over $1 trillion.

33. Which of the following is the basic economic policy function of the Federal Reserve Banks?

holding the deposits or reserves of commercial banks

B. acting as fiscal agents for the Federal government

C. controlling the supply of money

D. the collection or clearing of checks among commercial banks

34. In a fractional reserve banking system:

A. bank panics cannot occur.

B. the monetary system must be backed by gold.

C. banks can create money through the lending process.

D. the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.

35.

Refer to the diagram that applies to a private closed economy. The APC is equal to 1 at income level:

36. Assume the Continental National Bank's balance statement is as follows:

Assuming a legal reserve ratio of 20 percent, how much in excess reserves would this bank have after a check for $10,000 was drawn and cleared against it?

A. $ 3,000

B. $ 24,000

C. $ 6,000

D. $ 16,000

37. Answer the question on the basis of the following table for a commercial bank or thrift:

Refer to the above table. When the legal reserve ratio is 25 percent, the excess reserves of this single bank are:

A. $0.

B. $1,000.

C. $5,000.

D. $30,000.

38. Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?

A. open market operations

B. changes in banking laws

C. changes in tax rates

D. changes in government spending

39. An increase in nominal GDP increases the demand for money because:

A. interest rates will rise.

B. more money is needed to finance a larger volume of transactions.

C. bond prices will fall.

D. the opportunity cost of holding money will decline.

40. Answer the next question on the basis of the following table:

At equilibrium in the above market for money, the total amount of money demanded is:

A. $500.

B. $480.

C. $460.

D. $440.

41. For most financial assets investors must be compensated for:

A. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk.

B. diversifiable risk and time preference.

C. non-diversifiable risk and time preference.

D. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk, and time preference.

42. Reserves must be deposited in the Federal Reserve Banks by:

A. only commercial banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System.

B. all depository institutions, that is, all commercial banks and thrift institutions.

C. state chartered commercial banks only.

D. federally chartered commercial banks only.

43.

Refer to the diagrams. Assuming a constant price level, an increase in aggregate expenditures from AE₁to AE₂ would:

A.	move the economy from A to C along AD₁.

B.	move the economy from C to A along AD₁.

C.	increase aggregate demand from AD₁ to AD₂.

D.	decrease aggregate demand from AD₂ to AD₁.

44. The discount rate is the interest:

A. rate at which the central banks lend to the U.S. Treasury.

B. rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks.

C. yield on long-term government bonds.

D. rate at which commercial banks lend to the public.

45. What concept describes how quickly an investment increases in value when interest is paid not only on the original amount invested, but also on the accumulated interest payments?

A. present value

B. future value

C. compound interest

D. real rate of interest

46. The aggregate demand curve:

A. is upsloping because a higher price level is necessary to make production profitable as production costs rise.

B. is downsloping because production costs decline as real output increases.

C. shows the amount of expenditures required to induce the production of each possible level of real output.

D. shows the amount of real output that will be purchased at each possible price level.

47. The Security Market Line depicts the relationship between the:

A. average expected rate of return on stocks and the average expected rate of return on bonds.

B. average expected rate of return of a financial asset and the discount rate.

C. risk level of a financial asset and the prime interest rate.

D. average expected rate of return and risk level of a financial asset.

48. Arbitrage causes all financial assets:

A. of the same risk level to have the same price.

B. to have the same expected rate of return.

C. to have the same beta.

D. of the same risk level to have the same average expected rate of return.

49.

Refer to the diagrams. The numbers in parentheses after the AD₁, AD₂, and AD₃ labels indicate the levels of investment spending associated with each curve. All figures are in billions. If the money supply is MS₁ and the goal of the monetary authorities is full-employment output Q_f, they should:

A.	increase the money supply from $80 to $100.

B.	increase the money supply from $80 to $120.

C.	maintain the money supply at $80.

D.	decrease the money supply from $80 to $60.

50. Given the expected rate of return on all possible investment opportunities in the economy:

A. an increase in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

B. a decrease in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

C. a change in the real interest rate will have no impact on the level of investment.

D. an increase in the real interest rate will increase the level of investment.

END OF THE EXAM

Question 1 A recession occurs when there is a six consecutive month fall in Question 1 options:

A) real GDP.

B) nominal GDP.

C) the trade balance.

D) the price level.

Question 2 Since 1929, real GDP in the United States has grown at an average annual rate of about Question 2 options:

A) 0.5 percent.

B) 1 percent.

C) 3 percent.

D) 7.5 percent.

Question 3 Suppose that after reading a two-year low, the index of leading economic indicators rises for several months. Which of the following economic events will likely follow? Question 3 options:

A) A recession.

B) Severe inflation.

C) Increased production.

D) Reduced investment.

Question 4 Which of the following people would be officially counted as unemployed? Question 4 options:

A) A person who works only 5 hours per week for pay.

B) A full-time college student who chooses not to have a paying job.

C) A family member who works 20 hours per week in the family business without pay.

D) A jobless high-school graduate who is actively looking for work.

Question 5 Assume a country's population (age 16 and over) is 1 million people. What is the unemployment rate if there are 750,000 people in the labor force, 60,000 of whom are unemployed? Question 5 options:

A) 6%.

B) 8%.

C) 12.5%

D) 16.7%

Question 6 If a sizable number of workers were switched from full-time to half time employment, then the official unemployment rate would Question 6 options:

A) rise.

B) fall.

C) remain unchanged.

D) react unpredictably.

Question 7 Which of the following people would be classified as structurally unemployed? Question 7 options:

A) Computer programmers who lost their jobs because of a recession.

B) Construction workers who are on temporary layoff.

C) Discouraged workers who have given up looking for work.

D) Textile workers who lost their jobs because of new foreign competition.

Question 8 The economy is fully employed when there is no :

A) seasonal unemployment.

B) frictional unemployment.

C) structrual unemployment.

D) cyclical unemployment.

Question 9 The GDP gap measures the nation's monetary losses of real goods and services from :

A) operating at less than full employment.

B) discouraged workers who have stopped searching for employment. C) murders, suicides, and other sociological impacts of sustained unemployment.

D) seasonal and frictional unemployment.

Question 10 In the United States, the unemployment rate for blacks is :

A) roughly the same as the unemployment rate for whites.

B) about 1â2 percentage points higher than the unemployment rate for whites.
C) more than twice the unemployment rate for whites.

D) between 3 and 4 times the unemployment rate for whites.

1. A financial crisis coupled with a recession seems to affect the severity and duration of the recession. How?

a. Financial crises tend to make recessions milder and shorter
b. Financial crises tend to make recessions milder, but last longer
c. Financial crises tend to make recessions longer and more severe
d. Financial crises tend to make recessions more severe, but shorter

2. The end of the Great Depression troubled a lot of people. Why?

a. It lasted so long that people actually missed it
b. It disappeared without any warning
c. It ended so slowly that the public thought that was no improvement
d. It never really ended; it was merely interrupted by World War II
e. President Roosevelt said that he had ended the depression, but he was lying
f. The end of the depression coincided with massive inflation

Suppose that you have been asked to compare the problem of bank failures during the Obama recession with the past. How does the number of bank failures in the Obama recession compare to the 1930s or the Reagan recession?

a. the Obama recession had far more bank failures than the Great Depression or the Reagan recession
b. the bank failures of the 1930s were the worst, but the Obama recession was second only to the Great Depression in bank failures
c. bank failures were more numerous in the 1930s and in the Reagan recession
d. many banks failed in the 1930s and the current situation is not quite as bad, but there were no bank failures in the Reagan recession

When we reach full employment in the U.S. economy today, what will the unemployment rate be?

a. 0%

b. 3%

c. 4% - 4.5%

d. 5.0% - 6.0%

e. 10%

5. Which type of unemployment includes a person who has given up looking for a job because he thinks it is just a waste of time?

a. frictional unemployment
b. structural unemployment
c. cyclical unemployment
d. seasonal unemployment
e. voluntary unemployment
f. discouraged workers

Choose the answer that fills-in both blanks: How good was the original fit of the data for the Phillips Curve for the U.S. economy in the 1960s? __________ How good was the fit of the data for the Phillips Curve for the U.S. economy after the 1960s? ______________
a. adequate/okay
b. adequate/very good
c. okay/not as good, but still okay
d. adequate/not good
e. very good/even better
f. very good/okay
g. very good/not good
h. very good/very good

In the 20th century, only two countries stood out in terms of robust job creation. The two countries were:

a. China and Japan
b. Germany and France
c. The U.S. and the U.S.S.R.
d. The U.S. and Japan
e. The U.S. and Germany

8. It is very common to see the unemployment rate actually increase as the economy begins to recover (i.e., after the trough). What causes the unemployment rate to rise at this time?

a. structural unemployment increases
b. cyclical unemployment increases
c. seasonal unemployment increases
d. voluntary unemployment increases
e. discouraged workers return to the workforce

Danish labor market reforms are referenced in the Commentary. These reforms attempt to make it easier for firms to hire and fire workers. Which of these two are easier to hire or easier to fire is the primary or critical dimension of the reforms?
a. hire workers
b. fire workers
c. neither hire nor fire workers; the reforms have nothing to do with either

10.

The original Phillips Curve depicted by Almarin Phillips sought to show a relationship between unemployment and _______________. Subsequent versions of the Phillips Curve usually depict a relationship between unemployment and ___________________.
a. real GDP / nominal GDP
b. nominal GDP / real GDP
c. changes in wages/changes in prices (inflation)
d. changes in prices/changes in wages
e. changes in employment/changes in new jobs created
f. changes in new jobs created / changes in employment
g. changes in hat sizes/changes in dress sizes

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ECO100Y5 Chapter Notes - Chapter 23: Stagflation, Unemployment Benefits, Nairu

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