dcht24111997

Adding & Subtracting Polynomial

______ ______ x ______ 

There is much controversy in the news–both scientific and popular–about the use of embryonic stem cells for research. These cells are grown as cell lines in culture, created by taking the inner cell mass from 5-day-old embryos. What is the center of the controversy?

1. Which of the following involves moving peptidyl-RNA from the Asite to the P site?

   		A. Initiation of translation
   		B. Elongation of translation
   		C. Termination of translation
   		D. Elongation of transcription

1.How were researchers able to get the anti-thrombin gene intothe goat?

2.How were they able to have the anti-thrombin gene expressedonly in mammary tissues?

3. What types of diseases have the potential to be cured bystem cell technology?

4. Are any stem cell treatment currently approved or inclinical trials?

5. What is the difference between an embryonic stemcell and an adult stem cell? What are thechanges that occur in a cell as itdifferentiates?

2. Dolly the sheep was the clone of an adult sheep. Identify how an adult animal is cloned.

A) A fertilized egg cell is allowed to divide and then the embryo is split into several parts.

B) A haploid egg cell is fertilized by a haploid sperm cell within a female sheep.

C) A diploid egg cell is fertilized by a haploid sperm cell within a female sheep.

D) The haploid nucleus of an egg cell is removed and replaced with the diploid nucleus of a donor cell.

E) The diploid nucleus of an egg cell is removed and replaced with the haploid nucleus of a donor cell.

I answered all the questions already for my bacterial transformation lab. Can someone please help me check if all the answers are correct or not. Really in need of help. I realy am not sure with question 6, please let me know if any answers are incorrect and let me know which is the correct answer. Thank you so much!

Plate 1: No pGLO w/ broth

Plate 2: No pGLO broth+ampicillin

Plate 3: pGLO broth+ampicillin

Plate 4: pGLO broth+ampicillin+arabinose

At the conclusion of the power stroke,

a) actin has been moved toward the M line.

b) the myosin head is tightly bound to actin.

c) inorganic phosphate has been released from the myosin.

d) ADP is released from the myosin head.

e) All of the above

Choose the right answer

Which of the following generalizations concerning motor proteinsis correct?

A) They convert chemical energy into kinetic energy.

B) They convert chemical energy into potential energy.

C) They convert kinetic energy into chemical energy.

D) They convert kinetic energy into rotational energy.

E) They convert potential energy into chemical energy.

Clinical judgement in prescribing includes

a. Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed

b. Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process

c. Handing out drug samples to poor patients

d. Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs

In Phase I of clinical drug trials, potential uses and effects are determined by Select one:

a. Giving doses to healthy volunteers

b. Giving doses to people with the disease

c. Double-blind studies

d. Crossover studies

Hi there I am looking for some help with my toxicology study guide questions

1. The 1938 expansion of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetics Act was passed in response to the accidental poisoning of people who ingested:

A) aspirin

B) mercury

C) elixir sulfanilamide

D) rezulin

2. Dietary supplements are monitored for safety by the FDA only after sale, under the powers granted by the:

A) Supreme Court

B) Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetics Act of 1938

C) Food and Drugs Act of 1906

D) Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994 (DSHEA)

3. In _________________, a small group (20-100) of healthy volunteers receiving the NCE in order to verify the compound's safety and determine the appropriate dosing schedule (dose given and timing interval of treatments).

A) Pre-clinical trials

B) Phase I trials

C) Phase II trials

D) Phase III trials

4. The goal of Phase II trials is/are:

A) assess the effectiveness of the drug against the disease

B) determine whether there are any side effects (toxicity)

C) test the effects of the drug in a patient population

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

5. This phase involves post-approval monitoring of drug safety:

A) pre-clinical trials

B) Phase I

C) Phase II

D) Phase III

E) Phase IV

6. The Ames bacterial mutagenesis test and the chromosome aberration test in primary human lymphocytes or other mammalian cell line are required by the FDA and ICH as tests of:

A) genotoxicity

B) cardiotoxicity

C) immunotoxicity

D) drug-drug interactions

Hello, I am looking for some help with some toxicology study guide questions

7. The _____________ assay measures activity of the repolarizing potassium channel that regulates ventricular heart rate.

A) calcium channel activity

B) sodium channel activity

C) Ames

D) hERG

8. The ICH defines _____________ as " as those studies that investigate the potential undesirable pharmacodynamic effects of a substance on physiological functions in relation to exposure in the therapeutic range and above."

A) toxicology

B) safety pharmacology

C) pharmacology

D) pre-clinical trials

9. Metabolite profiling studies are often used to:

A) Identify non-human animal model species for toxicity testing

B) Identify the metabolic pathway of the NCE

C) Determine whether induction is taking place

10. Before human clinical trials can begin, the FDA must approve a company’s:

A) Investigational New Drug application

B) Request for Drug Marketing application

C) New Drug Approval application

D) All of the above

11. A New Drug Application (NDA) is filed after Phase ____ clinical trials.

A) I

B) II

C) III

D) IV

12. Post-approval monitoring is also called:

A) Phase 1

B) Phase 2

C) Phase 3

D) Phase 4

E) Phase 5

13. In vivo toxicology studies must be performed following:

A) Good manufacturing processes (GMP)

B) Good clinical practices (GCP)

C) Good laboratory practices (GLP)

D) All of the above

1. During embryonic development B1 cells produce....

a. antibody against self protein (autoantibody)

b. antibody against polysaccharides

c. antibody to microbial protein

d. antibody to microbial DNA

e. antibody of the IgE class

2. All of the following events can trigger mast cells to degranulate, except....

a. C3a molecules bind to C3a receptors on mast cell

b. C5a molecules bind to C5a receptors on mast cell

c. anaphylatoxins bind to their receptors on mast cell

d. circulating IgE antibodies bind to parasitic worms

e. allergens bind to IgE molecules that are bound to Fc epsilon RI receptors on mast cells

3. Which of the following pairs is comprised to two molecules that have oposonic activity and facilliate phagocytosis?

a. C3a; C5a

b. C3b; C5b

c. C3a; antibody

d. C3b; antibody

e. C4b2a; C3bBb

4. A hydrid cell that is formed by the fusion of a .... with a .... is called a ....

a. naive mature B cell; myeloma cell; plasma cell

b. plasma cell; myeloma cell; hydridoma

c. B1 cell ; B2 cell; hydridoma

d. plasma cell; hepatocyte; hydridoma

e. hydridoma; plasma cell; myeloma

5. Antibody diversity is generated by the recombination of antibody gene segments in the heavy chain gene, as well as in the kappa light chain gene and lambda chain gene. Which of the following is the first recombination?

a. Kappa light chain gene segments V and JC

b. Heavy chain V gene segment to D gene segment

c. Heavy chain V gene segment with C gene segment

d. Heavy chain D gene segment with J gene segment

e. Lambda V gene segment with J gene segment

You can BLOCK the DECREASE in theart rate following parasympathetic nervous system activation with an intravenous injection of

What should happen to the rate of ATP synthesis if you increase the pH in the inner membrane space (assume a complete mitochondria)?

a)decrease

b)increase

c)no effect

d)not enough information was provided

You can BLOCK the DECREASE in heart rate following parasympathetic nervous system activation with an intravenous injection of

QUESTION 13

A genealogical DNA test can be used to establish the personalancestry or genealogy of an individual. Though rarely containinginformation specifying specific genetic diseases or disorders, wecan use _____ to establish agnate (paternal) lineage, whereas _____contains no agnate information.

A. Autosomal DNA sequences; Y chromosome DNA sequences

B. X chromosome DNA sequences; Y chromosome DNA sequences

C. Y chromosome DNA sequences; mtDNA sequences

D. mtDNA sequences; Autosomal DNA sequences

QUESTION 14

1. A father's pedigreedemonstrates that his father suffered from a mutation in amitochondrial gene leading to the disease state LHON, and his wifehas no evidence of mitochondrial disease in her family. What is theprobability that a child from this union would create a child withLHON?

   		A. no chance
   	B.	1 out of 4
   C.		1 out of 2
   D.		3 out of 4
   	E.	all children will haveLHON.

QUESTION 15

1. In a dihybrid crosswith independent assortment of the two genes, any deviation fromthe Mendelian 9:3:3:1 ratio indicates that the phenotype is theproduct of the interaction of two or more genes.

   A.		True
   B.		False.

QUESTION 16

A woman has a son that is blood type B, while she is blood typeAB. If the babysdaddy is type A, what is the genotype of theson?

QUESTION 17

1. An infant is born withsevere weakness or dystrophy to a woman with only mild facialweakness. Family history reveals the maternal grandmother has nosign of dystrophy cataracts, a sign of a mild case of this geneticdisease. Increasing severity of symptoms of successive generationsis best described by which phenotypic inheritance mechanism?

   		A.anticipation
   B.		chimerism
   C.		indeterminantphenotype
   D.		mosaicism
   	E.	variableexpressivity
   		F. pleitropy QUESTION 18 Anarg- strain of E. coli is transformedwith a plasmid carrying the wild-type arg+gene. The transformed cells then are plated on two minimal mediumplates that either are supplemented with or are lacking the aminoacid arginine. The transformed cells would beexpected to grow on _______. A. only the plate lackingarginine B. only the platesupplemented with arginine C. neither plate D. both plates QUESTION 19 I have an individualthat has trisomy of the sex chromosome, X [47, XXX], but isphenotypically normal. Yet an individual that has only one X hasthe disease state Turner's Syndrome. Why doesn't that third X givea distinct phenotypic effect? A.lyonization of the Xchromosome B.dosage effects arelimited in trisomic indivduals C.dosage effects areenhanced in monosomic individuals D.more is alwaysbetter in genetics E.there are almost noactive genes on the X chromosome QUESTION 20 _______ bacterialstrains require nutritional supplements to grow in a minimalmedium. A.auxotrophic B. prototrophic C. heterotrophic D.autotrophic

QUESTION 34

1. A mutation in themitochondria is limited in its cellular effects primarilybecause

   a.		there are so few genescarried by the mitochondria
   b.		there is so muchuntranslated or "junk" DNA in the mitochondria
   c.		the genes in themitochondria are not critical for cellular function
   d.		there are so manycopies of mtDNA in each mitochondria
   e.		mtDNA is only passeddown from the mother

1points

QUESTION 35

1. All of the followingare required for HIGH-level expression of the lacstructural genes EXCEPT:

   a.		RNA polymerase + sigmafactor
   b.		CAP-cAMP
   c.		LacI bound toallolactose
   d.		glucose

1points

QUESTION 36

1. A woman withfacioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FMD), an autosomal dominanttrait, is seeking advice on having children. FMD does not run inher family. Her husband, who is 28 and normal, has an uncle withHuntington's disease (HD; autosomal dominant). His parents arenormal, and both are over 50. Symptoms of Huntington's disease mayappear from 12 to 65 years after birth; however, all HD members ofhis father's kindred developed signs during their thirties. HD andFMD are fully penetrant. What are the genetic risks for thiscouple's children?

   	a.	50% FMD, 50% HD
   b.		100% FMD, 0% HD
   c.		50% FMD, 0% HD
   d.		50% FMD, 25% HD
   e.		0% FMD, 50% HD

1points

QUESTION 37

1. E. colistrains that are Hfr strains _______.

   	a.	possess an Ffactor that has integrated into the bacterial chromosome
   b.		have a low frequencyof recombination
   c.		possess an Ffactor in the cytoplasm
   d.		are susceptible toinfection by a bacteriophage

1points

QUESTION 38

1. I have a spermatagoniacell (the cell that makes sperm) and it is undergoing meiosis. Ithas a non-disjunction event, and of the 4 spermatids created, twohave 24 chromosomes, and two have 22 chromosomes. Whathappened?

   a.		A non-disjunctionevent in meiosis I
   b.		A non-disjunctionevent in meiosis II
   c.		A non-disjunctionevent in mitosis
   e.		A mutation in thecentromere
   f.		A mutation in the sexchromsome

1points

QUESTION 39

1. An individual with adisease demonstrates a set phenotypic presentation, let us say theinability to appreciate 80's music, a most terrible affliction.Another individual with the same phenotypic presentation isdiscovered. When we sequence their genome, we find that there aretwo distinct DNA sequences involved, both differing fromwt, but they are located in the same gene in bothindividuals. This demonstrates

   	a.	Allelicheterogeneity
   b.		Locusheterogeneity
   c.		Pleitropy
   d.		Penetrance
   e.		Expressivity

1points

QUESTION 40

1. What is the mostlikely genetic consequence of a homozygous translocation?

   a.		abnormal pairing ofchromosomes duting meiosis
   b.		gene duplications
   c.		inviable gameteformation
   d.		an alteration in thelinkage relationship of genes
   e.		formation of abnormalchromatids following crossing-over

1points

QUESTION 41

1. From your reading,attenuation in trp gene regulation is accomplished by

   a.		repressing thetrp operon's operator.
   b.		reducing the cell'spermeability to the effector molecule, tryptophan.
   c.		blocking transcriptioninitiation at the trp operon's promoter.
   d.		forming secondary mRNAstructures in the leader region of the transcript.

1points

QUESTION 42

1. Which of the followingexplains why the lac operon is regulated by cataboliterepression, a positive control mechanism that is sensitive to theamount of glucose available to the cell?

   a.		Catabolite repressionallows the cell to choose glucose over lactose when both areavailable.
   b.		Catabolite repressionallows the cell to stockpile the enzymes needed for lactosemetabolism.
   c.		Catabolite repressioninhibits synthesis of the lac repressor, lacI, untilglucose is consumed.
   d.		Catabolite repressionallows the cell to store sugars for use later.

1points

QUESTION 43

1. I talked about a fewspecific diseases caused by chromosomal deletions. Which of thefollowing is not casued by a chromosomal deletion?

   	a.	Cri-du-chat
   b.		Prader-Willi
   c.		Fragile X Syndrome

1points

QUESTION 44

1. Which of the followingprovides the BEST explanation for how alacI^S mutation carries out itsfunction in a trans-dominant manner?

   	a.	The mutation affectsthe expression of genes located on another piece of DNA
   b.		The mutation continuesto affect cells for multiple generations.
   c.		The mutation affectsbacterial cells that do not carry the lacISallele.
   d.		The mutation affectsupstream or downstream genes on the same chromosome.

1points

QUESTION 45

1. I mate an individualthat is AaBbCcDd to another individual that is AaBbCcDd (Bothheterozygotes for all 4 genes). What is the probability that achild they have is homozygous dominanat for all of these genes?

   a.		1/16
   b.		1/64
   c.		1/256
   d.		1/8
   e.		3/4
   f.		1/2

1points

QUESTION 46

1. mtl,polA, and xyl are bacterial genes that can betransmitted using an Hfr strain. An interrupted matingexperiment resulted in xyl transconjugants appearing at 7minutes and reaching maximum level by 30 minutes. The mtltransconjugants appeared at 11 minutes and leveled off at 80%maximum by about 33 minutes, while polA did not appearuntil 24 minutes and then only rose slowly to about 30%. Which ofthe following lists the gene order and direction of insertioncorrectly?

   a.		mtl polA xyl?
   b.		xyl mtl polA?
   c.		polA mtl xyl?
   d.		mtl xyl polA?

1points

QUESTION 47

1. Which of these is themost true of mtDNA?

   	a.	It is resistant tomutation.
   b.		It is not wrappedaround histones.
   c.		It is only replicatedduring cellular meiosis.
   d.		It is only replicatedduring S phase.
   e.		It has large numbersof exons.

1points

QUESTION 48

1. Familial Downs,creating an inherited form of a disease also caused by chromosomenondisjunction, can be caused by

   	a.	Robertsoniantranslocations
   b.		deletion of chromosome21
   c.		Philadelphiachromosome
   d.		dating NAUstudents
   e.		inversion ofcentromeric DNA regions

1points

QUESTION 49

1. If two chiasmataoccurr between two genes, the resulting phenotype for thisrecombination would be

   a.		parental.
   b.		singlerecombinant.
   c.		doublerecombinant.
   d.		dominant.
   e.		recessive.

1points

QUESTION 50

1. Fragile X syndrome iscreated by ______ at the end of the X chromosome.

   a.		a non-disjunctionalevent
   b.		a frame shiftmutation
   c.		a nonsensemutation
   d.		a broken DNAstrand
   e.		a series oftrinucleotide repeats

1points

QUESTION 51

1. The inducer of thelac operon is _______, whereas the repressor of thetrp operon is _______.

   	a.	allolactose,tryptophan
   b.		tryptophan,allolactose
   c.		lactose, arabinose
   d.		galactose,tryptophan

1points

QUESTION 52

1. An allele thatexhibits incomplete dominance is usually haplosufficient.

   a.		True
   b.		False

1points

QUESTION 53

1. In the lacoperon in E. coli, a nonsense mutation in the _______ genewill result in a loss of ?-galactosidase activity in the cell.

   a.		lacY
   b.		lacZ
   c.		lacI
   d.		Both B and C arecorrect.

1points

QUESTION 54

1. An individual iscomposed of cells, and these cells should all come from the zygotewhich was formed duting fertilization. Once in a while, we willfind that cells from two different regions of the body may containcells from what must have been 2 different fertilization events,meaning the genotypes for these regions are distinctly different.This is an example of

   	a.	mosaicism
   b.		chimerism
   c.		pleitropy
   d.		non-disjunction
   e.		X-linked dominance

1points

QUESTION 55

1. A testcross oftrihybrid Drosophila produced the following phenotypes and numberof offspring. A table showing phenotype and the number of offspringwith each phenotype is below. A plus sign is used for wild-typephenotype; a letter indicates the mutant phenotype for thatgene.
   
   
   +++ 669
   abc 653
   ++c 121
   ab+ 139
   +b+ 2280
   a+c 2215
   +bc 3
   a++ 2
   Which gene pair is closer together; i.e. there are fewer map unitsbetween them?

   	a.	a --> b
   b.		b --> c
   c.		a --> c
   d.		a --> b and b--> c are the same length
   e.		a --> c and b--> c are the same length
   	f.	Cannot bedetermined

I need help with this plz

40. Which of the following can be described as a“metastatic cancer” :
a. A smooth muscle tumor within the uterine wall
b. A breast tumor that has spread to local lymph nodes
c. A colon tumor that has spread to the liver !!
d. Fast- growing brain tumor
e. One tumor that has invaded into a nearby muscle

Which statement is incorrect?

Select one:

a. Endocrine glands lack ducts.

b. The effect of hormones is shorter than the effect of nerve impulses.

c. Steroid hormones are carried in the blood by transport proteins.

d. Hormones may have widespread, distant effects on the body.

e. A common second-messenger is cyclic AMP.

The secretion of ________ by the posterior pituitary gland is the only hormone controlled by ________.

Select one:

a. antidiuretic hormone; positive feedback

b. oxytocin; positive feedback

c. oxytocin; negative feedback

d. antidiuretic hormone; negative feedback

Julie was diagnosed with an aggressive tumor of the thyroid. Surgery was performed to remove the thyroid. However, post-operatively, Julie's blood calcium levels began declining to life-threatening levels. This decline is most likely due to

Select one:

a. thyroid hormone replacement therapy after the surgery.

b. damage to the anterior pituitary during surgery.

c. accidental removal of the parathyroid glands during surgery.

d. improper laboratory handling of blood samples.

e. post-traumatic stress disorder.

Which statement is incorrect?

Select one:

a. Endocrine glands lack ducts.

b. The effect of hormones is shorter than the effect of nerve impulses.

c. Steroid hormones are carried in the blood by transport proteins.

d. Hormones may have widespread, distant effects on the body.

e. A common second-messenger is cyclic AMP.

According to Daltons atomic theory the smallest particle which can exist independently is

A An atom

B A cation

C A molecule

D An anion

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION 1:

Which of the following is true in comparing the protein versus nonprotein components of the extracellular matrix (ECM)?

If streaked properly, all bacteria will form distinct colonies that stay isolated after a standard overnight incubation period. True or False

true or false: if the bacteria produces tryptophanase enzyme, compartment 4 will turn pink after incubation

true or false. if bacteria breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose, compartment 6 will turn yellow

true or false. if Escherichia coli is inoculated into the Entertube, the first compartment will turn yellow, and the wax will be lifted.

true or false. Enterobacter aerogenes will turn compartment 12 blue.

Which of the following is not an example of evolution?

Which of the following transport steps in an intestinal epithelial cell can, under certain conditions, occur against a concentration gradient? (uptake refers to "into the cell", export: "out of the cell")

a. uptake of glucose

b. export of glucose

c. uptake of Na+ at the basolateral plasma membrane

d. uptake of Na+ at the apical plasma membrane

e. export of K+

Cofilin binds preferentially to ADP-containing actin filaments rather than to ATP-containing filaments. Consequently, this protein …

a. competes with profilin for actin binding.

b. binds to older actin filaments.

c. binds to the plus end of actin filaments.

d. stabilizes actin filaments.

e. All of the above.

Of the following classes of antidepressant drugs, the one associated with the highest incidence (up to 80% of patients taking the drug) of sexual dysfunction is:

A. analgesic
B. anxiolytic
C. anxiogenic

D. SSRIs

Why are people taking atorvastatin warned not to drink large quantities of grapefruit juice?

In a viral organism, DNA is found:

a)in their mitochondria

b)in their nuclei

c)as linear molecules of DNA or RNA

d)in their chloroplasts

e) all of the above

Which is NOT a piece of evidence in support of the endosymbiotic hypothesis? (A) There are many similarities between bacteria, nuclei and ribosomes. (B) Protein synthesis in mitochondria and bacteria is inhibited by antibiotics. (C) The enzymes for DNA, RNA and protein synthesis in bacteria and chloroplasts are similar. (D) Chloroplasts and mitochondria have circular DNA (E) None of the above answers are wrong; all are evidence for the hypothesis.