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13 Dec 2019

Explain vey clearly please

Suppose that there are three factors: capital, labor, and land. Bread requires inputs of land and labor, and steel requires capital and labor.
a.​Which factors are variable, and which are specific?
b.​Suppose Canada’s endowments of land and capital are 10 capital and 100 land, and the
United States’ are 50 capital and 100 land. Which good does each country export?
c.​How does trade affect the returns to land, labor, and capital in the United States and in Canada?

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Related questions

Q3. The assumption of rational self-interest implies that people will choose to enrich themselves even if doing so violates the rights or property of others.

a. true

b. false

Q4. If you can earn $10 an hour as a retail clerk, $12 an hour as an office assistant, $16 an hour as a house painter, and $20 an hour repairing bicycles, what is your opportunity cost of working to repair bicycles?

a. $12 an hour

b. $10 an hour

c. $20 an hour

d. $16 an hour

Q5. In the graph of a production possibilities curve, both the horizontal and vertical axes measure the annual quantities of goods produced.

a. true

b. false

Q6. Scarcity arises because

a. international companies are slow to explore for new resources.

b. resources are finite and unable to meet all human wants and needs.

c. many countries waste goods because of inefficient political systems.

d. import taxes retard production.

Q7. A production possibilities curve with clothing and food on the axes shows which of the following?

I. A society cannot have an unlimited amount of each good.

II. For an efficient society, an increase in clothing production will necessitate a decrease in food production.

III. A society will always produce the maximum amount of both clothing and food.

a. II only

b. I only

c. III only

d. both I and II

Q8. All points on the production possibilities curve are efficient.

a. true

b. false

Q9. Economic growth can be pictured in a production possibilities curve diagram by

a. shifting the production possibilities curve out.

b. moving from right to left along the curve.

c. moving from left to right along the curve.

d. shifting the production possibilities curve in.

Q10. Suppose the current unemployment rate is 15 percent. If it rises to 20 percent,

a. the production possibilities curve will shift inward.

b. the economy will move closer to the production possibilities curve.

c. the economy will operate further inside the production possibilities curve.

d. the economy will move up along the production possibilities curve.

Q11. Clean air is a scarce resource.

a. true

b. false

Q12. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. A good is anything that gives satisfaction or happiness to individuals.

b. Wants may include humanitarian and altruistic goals.

c. Wants are unlimited and include all material and nonmaterial desires.

d. Economic goods are available in desired quantities at a zero price.

Q13. The current size of the U.S. labor force is less than 100 million workers.

a. true

b. false

Q14. The factors of production are

a. never as useful as people expect them to be.

b. valuable only because they are owned by corporations seeking to make a profit from them.

c. scarce resources.

d. abundant without limit on the planet.

Q15. Why do firms seek to use the least-cost combination of inputs?

a. because they won't be able to stay in business if they don't

b. because that is the combination that their employees prefer

c. because managers and supervisors find their jobs are easiest when the least-cost combination is used

d. because they want to keep costs low in order to appear to the media as a well-run business

Q16. Which one of the following best describes how economists view prices?

a. Low prices are good; high prices are bad.

b. High prices are good; low prices are bad.

c. The best price is a fair price.

d. Prices are signals of relative scarcity.

Q17. The person who creates a product innovation and brings it to market is providing the resource of

a. labor.

b. land.

c. entrepreneurship.

d. capital.

Q18. Gifts of nature used in the production process are considered

a. entrepreneurship.

b. labor.

c. land.

d. capital.

Q19. In a free market economy,

a. government decides what is produced, and producers decide who gets to consume it.

b. as a good becomes relatively more scarce, its price declines.

c. firms choose only to produce the most fashionable goods, regardless of the cost of production.

d. goods and services are allocated by a price system.

Q20. Resources are also known as

a. stocks, bonds, and other financial instruments.

b. minerals.

c. factors of production.

d. factories.

Q21. The size of the U.S. labor force has declined over the past 20 years as many jobs have been outsourced from the United States to other countries.

a. true

b. false

Q22. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. The growth of the U.S. population over the next several decades will come from immigration.

b. Population growth makes a country poorer, because there are more mouths to feed.

c. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is inflation.

d. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is no inflation.

Q23. Which one of the following is FALSE?

a. The U.S. labor force will continue to grow through immigration.

b. Inflation stops economic growth.

c. Increased availability of reliable communication channels at lower and lower costs have led to companies relocating their manufacturing operations offshore.

d. The size of the U.S. labor force continues to grow despite many jobs being moved off-shore.

Q24. What is the purpose of a market system?

a. to facilitate efficient exchange

b. to encourage consumers to buy goods on credit

c. to ensure an equal distribution of income

d. to ensure that everyone is treated fairly

Q25. The market system is also called the price system because

a. people pay money in markets.

b. everything has a price tag.

c. rising prices are the signal to producers to make more of a particular good.

d. inflation is a disturbing problem.

Q26. Production refers to

a. any activity that causes a material conversion of an object.

b. any activity that results in the conversion of resources into goods and services that can be consumed.

c. any activity carried on by a firm, whether a corporation, partnership, or sole proprietorship.

d. physically producing material goods only.

Q27. An increase in the price of coffee, holding other things constant, will

a. decrease the demand for coffee.

b. increase the demand for coffee.

c. decrease the quantity of coffee demanded.

d. decrease the supply of coffee.

Q28. The supply curve shifts when the firm experiences a change in its production technology.

a. true

b. false

Q29. A surplus results when the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.

a. true

b. false

Q30. Table 3.1

Price per Constant-Quality Unit Quantity Demanded of Constant-Quality Units per Year Quantity Supplied of Constant-Quality Units per Year

$1.00 1,000 200

2.00 800 400

3.00 600 600

4.00 400 800

5.00 200 1,000

What condition characterizes a surplus?

a. Quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded.

b. Quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.

c. Consumers are unhappy with the price.

d. Producers are unhappy with the price.

Q31. An increase in quantity demanded is caused by

a. an increase in income.

b. a decrease in the price of a complement.

c. a change in expectations about price in the future.

d. a decrease in the price of the good.

Q32. The demand curve is downward sloping because

a. price and quantity have a direct relationship.

b. price is always constant.

c. demand is based on supply.

d. price and quantity have an inverse relationship.

Q33. An increase in the price of one good will decrease the demand for a substitute good.

a. true

b. false

Q34. The market demand curve is the vertical summation of the demand curves of all the individuals in the market.

a. true

b. false

Q35. The equilibrium price of a good is a price that everyone is happy with.

a. true

b. false

Q36. Which one of the following would cause a rightward shift of the supply curve?

a. A new tax is imposed on production of the good.

b. Some firms that have been producing the good go out of business.

c. Firms producing the good find ways of lowering their production costs.

d. There is an increase in demand for the good.

Q37. Which of the following is a determinant of demand?

a. cost of production

b. number of suppliers

c. technology of production

d. income

Q38. The market demand curve for a particular good

a. will not be affected by any of the determinants of individual demand.

b. is the horizontal sum of each individual demand curve for the good.

c. will show a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded.

d. may be less than an individual demand curve for the good.

Q39. Table 4.4

Quantity of CDs Purchased Total Utility Marginal Utility

1 75

2 135

3 185

4 35

5 25

6 15

According to Table 4.4, what is the total utility when six CDs are purchased?

a. 65

b. 260

c. 120

d. 220

Q40. A rational consumer will never purchase a product when its

a. marginal utility is decreasing.

b. total utility is decreasing.

c. marginal utility is slightly positive.

d. marginal utility is negative.

Q41. The price elasticity of demand becomes relatively greater as more substitutes are easily available.

a. true

b. false

Q42. Which of the following statements is true with respect to total utility and marginal utility?

a. Marginal utility is always equal to total utility.

b. Total utility will always be negative when marginal utility is positive.

c. Total utility is minimized when marginal utility is zero.

d. Marginal utility can decline as total utility rises.

Q43. Table 4.3

Quantityof Soda Marginal Utility of Soda Quantityof Pizza Marginal Utility of Pizza

1 50 1 100

2 25 2 80

3 0 3 60

4 -25 4 40

After consuming what quantity of soda does the consumer in Table 4.3 experience diminishing marginal utility?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 1

d. 4

Q44. If the price elasticity of demand is 0.5, a 10 percent increase in the price will cause

a. the quantity demanded to decrease by 20 percent.

b. the quantity demanded to decrease by 50 percent.

c. the quantity demanded to increase by 50 percent.

d. the quantity demanded to decrease by 5 percent.

Q45. Which one of the following would make the demand for satellite subscription TV relatively less elastic?

a. The cost of administering the satellite service is lowered.

b. Cable TV service becomes less widely available.

c. Other networks of wireless entertainment become more widely available.

d. The cost of transmitting satellite signals is lowered.

Q46. A price increase will cause a relatively large drop in quantity demanded when

a. demand is perfectly inelastic.

b. the price elasticity of demand is 0.

c. there is very little time allowed for consumers to react.

d. the consumer has easy access to a number of substitute goods.

Q47. Table 4.6

Price Quantity Demanded

$20 90

$16 110

$12 130

$ 8 150

According to the data in Table 4.6, what is the elasticity of demand between a price of $20 and a price of $16?

a. 0.60

b. 0.75

c. 0.90

d. 1.25

Q48. Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness

a. of the quantity demanded to changes in supply.

b. of the quantity demanded to changes in income.

c. of the quantity demanded to changes in price.

d. of the quantity demanded to changes in quantity.

Q49. Everyone who views the latest adventure movie in theaters will derive the same utility from seeing it.

a. true

b. false

Q50. The law of diminishing marginal utility asserts that total utility becomes negative when marginal utility begins to diminish.

a. true

b. false

1. Professor Gordon Hanson has a favorable view of illegal immigration because

Select one:

a. illegal immigration responds to the forces of the free market.

b. legal immigration is determined by a bureaucratic process which does not necessarily respond quickly to market forces.

c. spouses and children of skilled legal immigrants (who come with them) may not have marketable skills - so the case for legal immigration is weakened.

d. all of the above.

2. Gordon Hanson calculates gain/loss due to Mexican migration to the United States. He shows that because of Mexican migration to the United States:

Select one:

a. Original American workers lose 65% of US GDP.

b. Original American workers lose 1% of US GDP.

c. World income goes up by about 1.2% of US GDP.

d. Mexican wages fall by 0.03% of US GDP.

3. The Bracero Program refers to a temporary work visa program which is no longer in place. Under the program a large number of mostly Mexican farm workers could come and work in the Unirted States.

Select one:

True

False

4. This question may require some research. The US-Mexico Bracero Program was eventually opposed by:

Select one:

a. President Ronald Reagan.

b. Governor Rick Perry of Texas.

c. Cesar Chavez.

d. US Employers.

5. Which of the following is likely to contradict Samuel Huntington's idea that Mexican migrants to the US may not have an "Americano dream?"

Select one:

a. Mexican-American consumption pattern is not too different from the consumption pattern of rest of America.

b. Mexican immigrants who come from Mexican villages take longer to assimilate, but the educated Mexican immigrants assimilate readily.

c. Latinos are quite adept at climbing out of poverty. Sixty-eight percent of those who have been in this country 30 years, own their own homes.

d. A large number of Mexican-Americans join the US Army.

e. All of the above.

6. Which of the following would be called "Distributive Coalition" that prevents free entry and thereby creates deadweight losses?

Select one:

a. Racism

b. Casteism

c. Religious Fundamentalism

d. All of the above.

7. Which of the following events created a large number of refugees to the United States?

Select one:

a. The North Korean Famine of 1996

b. The Irish Potato Famine 1845-1850

c. The Chinese Famine 1958-1962

d. The Sudan Famine 1998

8. Approximately how many people in the world die every hour from hunger, malnutrition and starvation?

Select one:

a. 36

b. 3600

c. 3.6

d. 1000

9. According to Michael Clemens, World GDP would increase by 50% or more if inter-country immigration restrictions were removed.

Select one:

True

False

10. What is the current status of Senate Bill S. 744 (113th US Congress of 2013 - 2014) also known as Border Security, Economic Opportunity, and Immigration Modernization Act?

Select one:

a. It failed in the US Senate

b. It failed in the US House of Representatives.

c. Although the S 744 passed in 2013, it has not yet been introduced in the House of Representatives.

d. The bill was passed by the US Congress, but President Obama vetoed it.

11. In a country called George-David (named after George Borjas and David Card), the labor demand curve is given by: W = K – 4L

where W is the wage rate, K is a variable determined by capital stock in the country, and L is the labor force in the country.

K is created by capitalists and capitalists always convert 10 percent of their income to add to the stock of K (assume there is no depreciation).

Example: In this period if K is 60 and in this period, capitalists’ income is 100, in the next period, the value of K will be (old K + 10% of capitalists’ income in this period) = (60 + 0.10*100) = 70.

**

Suppose in period 1. K = 50 and the labor supply is 10. What is the capitalists' income in period 1?

Select one:

a. 200

b. 100

c. 300

d. None of the above.

12. Refer to the question above, What are capitalists' incomes in the next three periods? (Period 2, Period 3 and Period 4) in this country if labor supply remains the same at 10?

Select one:

a. 200, 210, 220

b. 200, 200, 200

c. 100, 200, 300

d. None of the above.

13. Refer to the question above. Show how the wages change in the next three periods (Period 2, Period 3 and Period 4) in this country if labor supply remains the same at 10.

Select one:

a. 10, 10, 10

b. 10, 20, 30

c. 30, 50, 70

14. Refer to the question above. What are the incomes of the capitalists’ in the next three periods (Period 2, Period 3 and Period 4) in this country if an immigration takes place and labor supply becomes 11 beginning Period 2?

Select one:

a. 200, 240, 280

b. 242, 242, 242

c. 202, 234, 256

d. None of the above.

15. Refer to the question above. What are the wage rates in Period 2, Period 3 and Period 4 in this country if an immigration takes place and labor supply becomes 11 beginning Period 2?

Select one:

a. 10, 10, 10

b. 10, 15, 20

c. 20, 23, 27

d. 25, 28, 31

e. None of the above.

For which of the following nations does international trade account for the largest percentage of GDP?
A) Japan
B) The Netherlands
C) Germany
D) Great Britain
E) the United States

2. Suppose that workers in Transylvania can produce only two goods-- yo-yos or sweat socks. The Transylvanian currency is the dealer. In what unit is the opportunity cost of yo-yos measured?
A) dealers
B) dealers per yo-yo
C) dealers per sweat sock
D) yo-yos
E) sweat socks

3. For each watch Denmark produces, it gives up the opportunity to make 50 pounds of cheese. Germany can produce one watch for every100 pounds of cheese it produces. Which of the following is true with regard to opportunity costs in the two countries?
A) The opportunity cost of producing watches is lower in Denmark.
B) The opportunity cost of producing cheese is lower in Denmark.
C) The opportunity cost of producing watches is identical in both countries.
D) It is impossible to compare opportunity costs because the two countries use different currencies.
E) In Germany the opportunity cost of producing one pound of cheese is one watch.

4. For each bow the Romans are producing, they give up the opportunity to make 10 arrows. The Dacians are giving up producing2 bows for every 40 arrows they are producing. Which of the following is true regarding comparative advantage?
A) The Romans have a comparative advantage in producing arrows
B) The Romans have a comparative advantage in producing bows
C) The Romans have a comparative advantage in producing arrows and bows
D) The Dacians have a comparative advantage in producing arrows and bows
E) The Dacians have a comparative advantage in producing bows

5. Which of the following is not a basis for trade between two nations?
A) different skill levels of the labor forces
B) one nation's absolute advantage
C) a difference in tastes between countries
D) economies of scale
E) different capital stocks

6. The opportunity cost of producing one car in Germany is 2,000bushels of wheat, and the opportunity cost of producing one car in Canada is 1,200 bushels of wheat. The two countries can realize mutual gains from trade if they agree on terms of trade that are
A) greater than 2,000 bushels of wheat per car
B) less than 1,200 bushels of wheat per car
C) greater than 1,200 bushels of wheat per car and less than 2,000bushels of wheat per car, and Germany produces wheat
D) greater than 1,200 bushels of wheat per car and less than 2,000bushels of wheat per car, and Germany produces cars
E) greater than 1,200 bushels of wheat per car and less than 2,000bushels of wheat per car, and each country produces both goods

7. The rate at which two countries trade one good for another
A) is known as the foreign exchange rate
B) is known as the terms of trade
C) is known as the export line
D) equals the slope of the import line
E) equals the common slope of the countries' production possibilities frontiers

8. Which of the following is true?
A) International trade makes it possible for a country's consumption possibilities to exceed its production possibilities.
B) International trade requires that a country's production possibilities exceed its consumption possibilities.
C) A country's production possibilities always equal its consumption possibilities.
D) A country's consumption possibilities can never equal its production possibilities because of leakages in the system.
E) As long as there is full employment of resources, a country's production possibilities will exceed its consumption possibilities even with trade.

9. Which of the following is not a reason for international specialization?
A) some countries have educated, trained workers, while other countries have unskilled workers
B) tastes and preferences tend to be different in different countries
C) economies of scale can allow larger, specialized producers to operate at a lower average cost
D) mineral resources are often concentrated in particular countries
E) the world price of a good is determined by the world supply and demand for it

10. Ad valorem tariffs on imports are based on a percentage of an import's value; specific tariffs are based on a lump sum per physical unit imported.
A) True
B) False


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