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Hi! I think I solved this, I just wanted to confirm which isright :)


f(x) = e/pi

Quotient rule: f'(x) = [pi*e - e(0)]/pi^2 = (pi*e)/pi^2 =e/pi


Since the derivative of e^x is e^x, I'm assuming the derivativeof e is e then? Or is it a constant and thus 0? If that's the casethen:

f'(x) = [pi(0) - e(0)]/pi^2 = (0-0)/pi^2 = 0/pi^2 = 0


Which solution is correct? Or are neither correct?



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