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13 Jul 2020
Suppose is defined as below. Over the interval there is no point where the derivative equals zero. Why doesn't Rolle's Theorem apply to this situation?
,
Suppose is defined as below. Over the interval there is no point where the derivative equals zero. Why doesn't Rolle's Theorem apply to this situation?
,
1
answer
0
watching
197
views
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Zhen ZhuLv5
13 Jul 2020