FIN 331 Lecture Notes - Lecture 12: Dividend Yield, Advance Auto Parts, Procter & Gamble

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11 Jan 2017

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Document Summary

Risk- the chance that the actual return from an investment may differ from what was expected. Business risk- the variability surrounding the firm"s cash flows and subsequent ability to meet operating expenses on time. Companies that are subject to high degrees of business risk may experience: Can experience substantial operating losses every now and then. Financial risk- concerns the amount of debt used to finance a firm, as well as the possibility that the firm will not have sufficient cash flows to meet these obligations on time. Market risk- a type of risk associated with the price volatility of a security. Purchasing power risk- a type of risk, resulting from possible changes in price levels, which can significantly affect investment, returns. Rising prices (inflation): the purchasing power of the dollar declines, and a dollar can buy less. *the prices of fixed-income securities drop when interest rates increase because.

Related Questions

QUESTION 1

In the lease versus buy decision, leasing is often preferable

	A.	because the lessee owns the property at the end of the least term.
	B.	because lease obligations do not affect the firm's risk as seen by investors.
	C.	because, generally, no down payment is required, and there are no indirect interest costs.
	D.	because it has no effect on the firm's ability to borrow to make other investments.
	E.	because the lessee may have greater flexibility in abandoning the project in which the leased property is used than if the lessee bought and owned the asset.

2 points

QUESTION 2

The tighter the probability distribution of its expected future returns, the greater the risk of a given investment as measured by its standard deviation.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 3

Ratio analysis involves analyzing financial statements in order to appraise a firm's financial position and strength.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 4

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	If the returns on two stocks are perfectly positively correlated (i.e., the correlation coefficient is +1.0) and these stocks have identical standard deviations, an equally weighted portfolio of the two stocks will have a standard deviation that is less than that of the individual stocks.
	B.	If a stock has a negative beta, its expected return must be negative.
	C.	A portfolio with a large number of randomly selected stocks would have less market risk than a single stock that has a beta of 0.5.
	D.	According to the CAPM, stocks with higher standard deviations of returns must also have higher expected returns.
	E.	A portfolio with a large number of randomly selected stocks would have more market risk than a single stock that has a beta of 0.5, assuming that the stock's beta was correctly calculated and is stable.

2 points

QUESTION 5

Many leases written today combine the features of operating and financial leases. Such leases are often called "combination leases."

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 6

The owner of a convertible bond owns, in effect, both a bond and a call option.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 7

If a firm raises capital by selling new bonds, it is called the "issuing firm," and the coupon rate is generally set equal to the required rate on bonds of equal risk.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 8

Which of the following statements is most CORRECT?

	A.	Warrants can sometimes be detached and traded separately from the debt with which they were issued, but this is unusual.
	B.	One important difference between warrants and convertibles is that convertibles bring in additional funds when they are converted, but exercising warrants does not bring in any additional funds.
	C.	The coupon rate on convertible debt is normally set below the coupon rate that would be set on otherwise similar straight debt even though investing in convertibles is more risky than investing in straight debt.
	D.	Warrants have an option feature but convertibles do not.
	E.	The value of a warrant to buy a safe, stable stock should exceed the value of a warrant to buy a risky, volatile stock, other things held constant.

2 points

QUESTION 9

Because of improvements in forecasting techniques, estimating the cash flows associated with a project has become the easiest step in the capital budgeting process.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 10

The form of organization for a business is not an important issue, as this decision has very little effect on the income and wealth of the firm's owners.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 11

Two important issues in corporate governance are (1) the rules that cover the board's ability to fire the CEO and (2) the rules that cover the CEO's ability to remove members of the board.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 12

The "preferred" feature of preferred stock means that it normally will provide a higher expected return than will common stock.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 13

If an investment project would make use of land which the firm currently owns, the project should be charged with the opportunity cost of the land.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 14

Operating leases help to shift the risk of obsolescence from the user to the lessor.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 15

Starting to invest early for retirement increases the benefits of compound interest.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 16

Market risk refers to the tendency of a stock to move with the general stock market. A stock with above-average market risk will tend to be more volatile than an average stock, and its beta will be greater than 1.0.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 17

Other things held constant, an increase in the cost of capital will result in a decrease in a project's IRR.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 18

An option is a contract that gives its holder the right to buy or sell an asset at a predetermined price within a specified period of time.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 19

The optimal distribution policy strikes that balance between current dividends and capital gains that maximizes the firm's stock price.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 20

If the current price of a stock is below the strike price, then an option to buy the stock is worthless and will have a zero value.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 21

The desire for floating-rate bonds, and consequently their increased usage, arose out of the experience of the early 1980s, when inflation pushed interest rates up to very high levels and thus caused sharp declines in the prices of outstanding bonds.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 22

Taylor Inc. estimates that its average-risk projects have a WACC of 10%, its below-average risk projects have a WACC of 8%, and its above-average risk projects have a WACC of 12%. Which of the following projects (A, B, and C) should the company accept?

	A.	Project C, which is of above-average risk and has a return of 11%.
	B.	Project A, which is of average risk and has a return of 9%.
	C.	None of the projects should be accepted.
	D.	All of the projects should be accepted.
	E.	Project B, which is of below-average risk and has a return of 8.5%.

2 points

QUESTION 23

To finance the construction of a new plant, Pietersen Corporation must raise an additional $10,000,000 of equity capital through the sale of common stock. The firm currently has an EPS of $5.40 and a P/E ratio of 10, with 1,200,000 shares outstanding. If the firm wants its ex-rights price to be $50, what subscription price must it set on the new shares?

	A.	$39.28
	B.	$50.00
	C.	$29.55
	D.	$41.80
	E.	$33.78

2 points

QUESTION 24

Which of the following statements is CORRECT, assuming positive interest rates and holding other things constant?

	A.	A 30-year, $150,000 amortized mortgage will have larger monthly payments than an otherwise similar 20-year mortgage.
	B.	A bank loan's nominal interest rate will always be equal to or less than its effective annual rate.
	C.	The present value of a 5-year, $250 annuity due will be lower than the PV of a similar ordinary annuity.
	D.	If an investment pays 10% interest, compounded annually, its effective annual rate will be less than 10%.
	E.	Banks A and B offer the same nominal annual rate of interest, but A pays interest quarterly and B pays semiannually. Deposits in Bank B will provide the higher future value if you leave your funds on deposit.

2 points

QUESTION 25

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	In the statement of cash flows, a decrease in inventories is reported as a use of cash.
	B.	In the statement of cash flows, a decrease in accounts receivable is reported as a use of cash.
	C.	In the statement of cash flows, depreciation charges are reported as a use of cash.
	D.	In the statement of cash flows, a decrease in accounts payable is reported as a use of cash.
	E.	Dividends do not show up in the statement of cash flows because dividends are considered to be a financing activity, not an operating activity.

2 points

QUESTION 26

The term "additional funds needed (AFN)" is generally defined as follows:

	A.	A forecasting approach in which the forecasted percentage of sales for each balance sheet account is held constant.
	B.	Funds that are obtained automatically from routine business transactions.
	C.	Funds that a firm must raise externally from non-spontaneous sources, i.e., by borrowing or by selling new stock to support operations.
	D.	The amount of internally generated cash in a given year minus the amount of cash needed to acquire the new assets needed to support growth.
	E.	The amount of assets required per dollar of sales.

2 points

QUESTION 27

The cash flows associated with common stock are more difficult to estimate than those related to bonds because stock has a residual claim against the company versus a contractual obligation for a bond.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 28

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	The NPV method automatically deals correctly with externalities, even if the externalities are not specifically identified, but the IRR method does not. This is another reason to favor the NPV.
	B.	Identifying an externality can never lead to an increase in the calculated NPV.
	C.	Both the NPV and IRR methods deal correctly with externalities, even if the externalities are not specifically identified. However, the payback method does not.
	D.	An example of an externality is a situation where a bank opens a new office, and that new office causes deposits in the bank's other offices to increase.
	E.	An externality is a situation where a project would have an adverse effect on some other part of the firm's overall operations. If the project would have a favorable effect on other operations, then this is not an externality.

2 points

QUESTION 29

Time lines can be constructed in situations where some of the cash flows occur annually but others occur quarterly.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 30

A warrant is an option, and as such it cannot be used as a "sweetener."

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 31

BLW Corporation is considering the terms to be set on the options it plans to issue to its executives. Which of the following actions would decrease the value of the options, other things held constant?

	A.	The life of the option is increased, i.e., the time until it expires is lengthened.
	B.	The exercise price of the option is increased.
	C.	The Federal Reserve takes actions that increase the risk-free rate.
	D.	BLW's stock price becomes more risky (higher variance).
	E.	BLW's stock price suddenly increases.

2 points

QUESTION 32

Convertible debentures for Kulik Corporation were issued at their $1,000 par value in 2012. At any time prior to maturity on February 1, 2032, a debenture holder can exchange a bond for 25 shares of common stock. What is the conversion price, Pc?

	A.	$48.62
	B.	$40.00
	C.	$42.00
	D.	$46.31
	E.	$44.10

2 points

QUESTION 33

A stock is expected to pay a dividend of $0.75 at the end of the year. The required rate of return is rs = 10.5%, and the expected constant growth rate is g = 6.4%. What is the stock's current price?

	A.	$18.29
	B.	$17.39
	C.	$19.22
	D.	$18.75
	E.	$17.84

2 points

QUESTION 34

If a firm's goal is to maximize its earnings per share, this is the best way to maximize the price of the common stock and thus shareholders' wealth.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 35

The common stock of Southern Airlines currently sells for $33, and its 8% convertible debentures (issued at par, or $1,000) sell for $850. Each debenture can be converted into 25 shares of common stock at any time before 2025. What is the conversion value of the bond?

	A.	$783.75
	B.	$744.56
	C.	$825.00
	D.	$866.25
	E.	$707.33

2 points

QUESTION 36

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	If interest rates increase, the price of a 10-year coupon bond will decline by a greater percentage than the price of a 10-year zero coupon bond.
	B.	If a bond's yield to maturity exceeds its annual coupon, then the bond will trade at a premium.
	C.	If a coupon bond is selling at par, its current yield equals its yield to maturity.
	D.	If a coupon bond is selling at a premium, its current yield equals its yield to maturity.
	E.	If a coupon bond is selling at a discount, its price will continue to decline until it reaches its par value at maturity.

2 points

QUESTION 37

A proxy is a document giving one party the authority to act for another party, including the power to vote shares of common stock. Proxies can be important tools relating to control of firms.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 38

Projects S and L are equally risky, mutually exclusive, and have normal cash flows. Project S has an IRR of 15%, while Project L's IRR is 12%. The two projects have the same NPV when the WACC is 7%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	Project S's NPV is more sensitive to changes in WACC than Project L's.
	B.	If the WACC is 13%, Project S will have the lower NPV.
	C.	If the WACC is 6%, Project S will have the higher NPV.
	D.	If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have positive NPVs.
	E.	If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have a negative NPV.

2 points

QUESTION 39

A firm's AFN must come from external sources. Typical sources include short-term bank loans, long-term bonds, preferred stock, and common stock.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 40

Which of the following could explain why a business might choose to operate as a corporation rather than as a sole proprietorship or a partnership?

	A.	Less of a corporation's income is generally subjected to taxes than would be true if the firm were a partnership.
	B.	Corporate shareholders escape liability for the firm's debts, but this factor may be offset by the tax disadvantages of the corporate form of organization.
	C.	Corporations generally find it relatively difficult to raise large amounts of capital.
	D.	Corporations generally face relatively few regulations.
	E.	Corporate investors are exposed to unlimited liability.

2 points

QUESTION 41

The cost of debt is equal to one minus the marginal tax rate multiplied by the average coupon rate on all outstanding debt.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 42

Amram Company's current ratio is 1.9. Considered alone, which of the following actions would reduce the company's current ratio?

	A.	Use cash to reduce accruals.
	B.	Borrow using short-term notes payable and use the proceeds to reduce long-term debt.
	C.	Use cash to reduce accounts payable.
	D.	Borrow using short-term notes payable and use the proceeds to reduce accruals.
	E.	Use cash to reduce short-term notes payable.

2 points

QUESTION 43

ESOPs were originally designed to help improve worker productivity, but today they are also used to help prevent hostile takeovers.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 44

High current and quick ratios always indicate that a firm is managing its liquidity position well.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 45

A firm should never accept a project if its acceptance would lead to an increase in the firm's cost of capital (its WACC).

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 46

"Capital" is sometimes defined as funds supplied to a firm by investors.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 47

Heavy use of off-balance sheet lease financing will tend to

	A.	affect a company's cash flows but not its degree of risk.
	B.	make a company appear less risky than it actually is because its stated debt ratio will appear lower.
	C.	make a company appear more risky than it actually is because its stated debt ratio will be increased.
	D.	affect the lessee's cash flows but only due to tax effects.
	E.	have no effect on either cash flows or risk because the cash flows are already reflected in the income statement.

2 points

QUESTION 48

As a firm's sales grow, its current assets also tend to increase. For instance, as sales increase, the firm's inventories generally increase, and purchases of inventories result in more accounts payable. Thus, spontaneous liabilities that reduce AFN arise from transactions brought on by sales increases.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 49

On the balance sheet, total assets must always equal total liabilities and equity.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 50

The annual report contains four basic financial statements: the income statement, balance sheet, statement of cash flows, and statement of stockholders' equity.

True

False

In this second section, you are required to read the short case study and answer the required questions:

Kencan Local

In the world of cutting-edge fashion, instinct and marketing knowledge are prerequisites to success. Fanny Elly had both. During 2018, his international formal-ware company, Kencan, rocketed to $300 million in sales after 10 years in business. His fashion line covered middle-aged women from head to toe with hats, dresses, head scarfs and etc. In Kucing, there was a Kencan shop every five or six blocks, each featuring a unique colour.

Kencan had made it. The conservative company’s historical analyst speculated that Encore could not keep up the pace. They warned that competition is intense in the fashion industry and that the firm would experience little or no growth in the future. They estimated that stockholders also should expect no growth in the future dividends.

However, Fanny Elly felt that the company could maintain a constant growth rate in dividends per share of 6% in the future, or possibly 8% for the next 2 years and 6% thereafter. Elly based his estimates on an established long-term expansion plan into the Brunei market. Venturing into these markets was expected to cause the risk of the firm, as measured by the risk premium on its stock, to increase immediately from 8.8% to 10%. Currently, the risk-free rate is 6%.

In preparing the long-term financial plan, Kencan’s chief financial officer has assigned a junior financial analyst, Manny Susan, to evaluate the firm’s current stock price. He has asked Manny to consider the conservative analysis and the aggressive predictions of the company founder, Fanny Elly.

Manny has gathered their 2018 financial data to aid his analysis:

Additionally, Manny has gathered that Kencan holds inventory 70 days, pays its suppliers in 40 days, and collects its receivables in 10 days. The firm has a current annual outlay of RM1,550,000 on operating cycle investments. Kencan currently pays 12 percent for its negotiated financing. Kencan uses 750 units of a product per year on a continuous basis. The product has carrying costs of RM45 per unit per year and order costs of RM280 per order. It takes 15 days to receive a shipment after an order is placed and the firm requires a safety stock of 4 days’ usage in inventory.

Along with that Kencan has been presented with an investment opportunity into Europe which will yield cash flows of RM34,000 per year starting from 2019, Years 1 through 4, RM35,000 per year in Years 5 through 9, and RM45,000 in Year 10. This investment will cost the firm RM130,000 today, and the firm's cost of capital is 9.5 percent with the assumption that the cash flows occur evenly during the year.

Required:

a) Calculate Kencan’s current book value per share (2 marks)

b) Calculate Kencan’s current P/E ratio? (2 marks)

c) Calculate the current required return for Kencan stock? (5 marks)

d) Calculate the new require return for Kencan stock assuming that they expand into the Brunei market as planned? (5 marks)

e) If the security analysts are correct and there is no growth in future dividends, what will be the value per share of Kencan’s stock? (Note: Use the new required return on the company’s stock here.) (5 marks)

f) If Fanny Elly’s predictions are correct, what will the value per share of Kencan stock if the firm maintains a constant annual 6% growth rate in future dividends? (Note: Continue to use the new required return here.) (5 marks)

g) If Fanny Elly’s predictions are correct, what will the value per share of Kencan stock if the firm maintains a constant annual 8% growth rate in future dividends per share over the next 2 years and 6% thereafter? (5 marks)

h) Compare the current (2018) price of the stock and the stock values found in parts a, e, f and g. Discuss why these values differ. Which valuation method do you believe most clearly represents the true value of the Kencan stock? (7 marks)

lemonwasp245

1) The subarea of finance where you need to value uncertain cash flows occurring at different points in time is:

a. investments

b. corporate finance

c. capital markets

d. bank management.

e. all of the above subareas

2) Which of the following statements is correct?

a. One advantage of forming a corporation is that equity investors are usually exposed to less liability than they would be in a partnership.

b. Corporations face fewer regulations than sole proprietorships.

c. One disadvantage of operating a business as a sole proprietor is that the firm is subject to double taxation, because taxes are levied at both the firm level and the Owner level.

d. It is generally less expensive to form a corporation than a proprietorship because, with a proprietorship, extensive legal documents ace required.

e. If a partnership goes bankrupt, each partner is exposed to liabilities only up to the amount of his or her investment in the business.

3) Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Corporations generally face fewer regulations than sole proprietorships.

b. Corporate shareholders are exposed to unlimited liability.

c. It is usually easier to transfer ownership in a corporation than in a partnership.

d. Corporate shareholders are exposed to unlimited liability, but this factor is offset by the tax advantages of incorporation.

e. Less of a corporation's income is generally subject to federal taxes.

4) The primary operating goal of a publicly-owned firm interested in serving its stockholders should be to:

a. Maximize its expected total corporate income.

b. Maximize its expected EPS.

c. Minimize the chances of losses.

d. Maximize the stock price per share over the long run, which is the stockâs intrinsic value.

e. Maximize the stock price on a specific target date.

5) Which of the following is correct?

a. In most corporations, the CFO ranks above the CEO.

b. By Law in most states, the chairman of the board must also be the CEO.

c. It is possible for a person to simultaneously serve as CEO and chairman of the board, though many corporate control experts believe it is bad to vest both offices in the same person.

d. The CFO generally reports to the firm's chief accounting officer, who is normally the controller.

e. The CFO is responsible for raising capital and for making sure that capital expenditures are desirable, but he or she is not responsible for the validity of the financial statements, as the controller and the auditors have that responsibility.

6) The primary operating goal of a publicly-owned firm trying to best serve its stockholders should be to

a. Maximize managers' own interests, which are by definition consistent with maximizing shareholders' wealth.

b. Maximize the firmâs expected EPS, which must also maximize the firmâs price per share.

c. Minimize the firmâs risks because most stockholders dislike risk in turn, this will maximize the firmâs stock price.

d. Use a well-structured managerial compensation package to reduce conflicts that may exist between stockholders and managers.

e. Since it is impossible to measure a stock's intrinsic value, the text states that it is better for managers to attempt to maximize the current stock price than its intrinsic value.

7) Which of the following actions would be most likely to reduce potential conflicts of interest between stockholders and bondholders?

a. Compensating managers with stock options.

b. Financing risky projects with additional debt.

c. The threat of hostile takeovers.

d. The use of covenants in bond agreements that limit the firmâs use of additional debt and constrain managers' actions.

e. Abolishing the Security and Exchange Commission.

8) Which of the following actions would be most likely to reduce potential conflicts of interest between stockholders and managers?

a. Pay managers large cash salaries and give them no stock options.

b. Change the corporation's formal documents to make it easier for outside investors to acquire a controlling interest in the firm through a hostile takeover.

c. Beef up the restrictive covenants in the firmâs debt agreements.

d. Eliminate a requirement that members of the board of directors must hold a high percentage of their personal wealth in the firmâs stock.

e. For a firm that compensates managers with stock options, reduce the time before options are vested, i.e., the time before options can be exercised and the shares that are received can be sold.

9) Which of the following mechanisms would be most likely to help motivate managers to act in the best interests of shareholders?

a. Decrease the use of restrictive covenants in bond agreements.

b. Take actions that reduce the possibility of a hostile takeover.

c. Elect a board of directors tlta.t allows managers greater freedom of action.

d. Increase the proportion of executive compensation that comes from stock options and reduce the proportion that is paid as cash salaries.

e. Eliminate a requirement that members of the board of directors have a substantial investment in the firmâs stock.

10) Which of the following is correct?

a. Potential conflicts between stockholders and bondholders are increased if a firm's bonds are convertible into its common stock.

b. Because bankruptcy requires that corporate bondholders be paid in full before stockholders receive anything, bondholders generally prefer to see corporate managers invest in high risk/high return projects rather than low risk/low return projects.

c. There is no good reason to expect a firmâs stockholders and bondholders to react differently to the types of assets in which it invests.

d. Stockholders should generally be happier than bondholders to have managers invest in risky projects with high potential returns as opposed to safe projects with lower expected returns.

e. Bondholders should generally be happier titan stockholders to have managers invest in risky projects with high potential returns as opposed to safe projects with lower expected returns.

11) You recently sold 100 shares of Microsoft stock to your brother at a family reunion. At the reunion your brother gave you a check for the stock and you gave your brother the stock certificates. Which of the following best describes this transaction?

a. This is an example of a direct transfer of capital

b. This is an example of a primary market transaction.

c. This is an example of an exchange of physical assets.

d. This is an example of a money market transaction.

e. This is an example of a derivative market transaction.

12) Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The NYSE does not exist as a physical location. Rather it represents a loose collection of dealers who trade stock electronically.

b. An example of a primary market transaction would be your uncle transferring 100 shares of Walmart stock to you as a birthday gift.

c. Capital market instruments include both long-term debt and common stocks.

d. If your uncle in New York sold 100 shares of Microsoft through his broker to an investor in Los Angeles, this would be a primary market transaction.

e. While the two frequently perform similar functions, investment banks generally specialize in lending money, whereas commercial banks generally help companies raise large blocks of capital from investors.

13) Which of the following is a primary market transaction?

a. You sell 200 shares of IBM stock on the NYSE through your broker.

b. You buy 200 shares of IBM stock from your brother. The trade is not made through a broker--you just give him cash and he gives you the stock.

c. IBM issues 2,000,000 shares of new stock and sells them to the public through an investment banker.

d. One financial institution buys 200,000 shares of IBM stock from another institution. An investment banker arranges the transaction.

e. IBM sells 2,000.000 shares of treasury stock to its employees when they exercise options that were granted in prior years.

14) Money Markets are markets for:

a. Foreign currencies.

b. Consumer automobile loans.

c. Common stocks.

d. Long-term bonds.

e. Short-term debt securities such as Treasury bills and commercial paper.

15) You recently sold 200 shares of Disney stock, and the transfer was made through a broker. This is an example of:

a. A money market transaction.

b. A primary market transaction.

c. A secondary market transaction.

d. A futures market transaction.

e. An over-the-counter market transaction.

16) Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Hedge funds are legal in Europe and Asia, but they are not permitted to operate in the United States.

b. Hedge funds are legal in the United States, but they are not permitted to operate in Europe or Asia.

c. Hedge funds have more in common with investment banks than with any other type of financial institution.

d. Hedge funds have more in common with commercial banks than with any other type of financial institution.

e. Hedge funds are not as highly regulated as most other types of financial institutions.

17) Which of the following factors statements is correct?

a. The New York Stock Exchange is an auction market, and it has a physical location.

b. Home mortgage loans are traded in the money market.

c. If an investor sells shares of stock through a broker, then it would be a primary market transaction.

d. Capital markets deal only with common stocks and other equity securities.

e. While the distinctions are blurring, investment banks generally specialize in lending money, whereas commercial banks generally help companies raise capital from other parties.

18) Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The term "IPO" stands for Introductory Price Offered, and it is the price at which shares of a new company are offered to the public.

b. IPO prices are generally established by the market, and buyers of the new stock must pay the price that prevails at the close of trading on the day the stock is offered to the public.

c. In a "Dutch auction," investors who want to buy shares in an IPO submit bids indicating how many shares they want to buy and the price they are willing to pay. The company determines how many shares it wants to sell. The highest price that enables the company to sell the desired number of shares is the price that all buyers must pay.

d. It is possible that the price set in an IPO is so high that investors will refuse to buy the number of shares that the company wants to sell. In this situation, the IPO is said to be oversubscribed.

e. It is possible that the price set in an IPO is so low that investors will want to buy more shares than the company wants to sell. In that case, the company will have to issue more shares than it wants to sell.

19) The stock market is thought to be efficient because:

a. There are many brokers working the exchange floors

b. Computers can make very fast calculations these days

c. There are many stock analysts following the same stocks

d. Stocks are available and are very inexpensive

e. Speed trading is now an acceptable trading technique

20) If the stock is priced correctly but with better management the firm could be worth even more, then the firm would be:

a. A potential target for a stock investor

b. A potential target for a private equity firm

c. A potential target for a bond fund

d. A potential target for the SEC

e. A potential target for share repurchases

FIN 331 Lecture Notes - Lecture 12: Dividend Yield, Advance Auto Parts, Procter & Gamble

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