ECON 322 Lecture Notes - Lecture 7: Purchasing Power Parity, Real Interest Rate, Tariff

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ambermuskrat630

26 Sep 2016

School

USC, SC, Carolina, South Carolina

Department

Economics

Course

ECON 322

Professor

Hauk

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Document Summary

Y = c + i + g + nx. Savings - investment = net capital outflow = net exports. Nominal: ( e) relative price of 2 countries" currencies e = When currency appreciates, it gains value (exchange rate increases) When currency depreciates, it loses value (exchange rate decreases) Real exchange rate ( ): relative price of 2 countries" goods e = nominal exchange rate; p = price in domestic country; pf = price in foreign country. You can get 1/2 a japanese car for the price of 1 us car because < 1. That means us exports more cars r = r* (real interest rate = world interest rate) in a small economy with perfect capital mobility. If a small, domestic country runs a budget deficit: If a big, foreign country runs a deficit. If an import tariff is put in place (trade protection) In the long run, converges to 1.

Related Questions

1.Purchasing power parity implies that

a. the real exchange rate is equal to 1.

b. the law of one price does not hold.

c. inflation rates are equal across countries.

d. the real exchange rate is equal to 0.

e. if the domestic country has low prices, then the domestic currency will depreciate until foreign citizens can buy the same amount of goods as domestic citizens.

2.Which of the following is a prediction from the PPP model of exchange rates?

A. An increase in the US money supply leads to an appreciation of the dollar in the long run.

B. An increase in US production leads to a depreciation of the dollar.

C. An increase in US production will lead to a proportional increase in the inflation rate.

D, An increase in the US money supply leads to a depreciation of the dollar in the long run.

E.An increase in the US interest rates leads to a fall in prices.

3.Relative purchasing power parity predicts that

A.the difference between the inflation rates in the two countries should equal the ratio of the interest rates in the two countries.

B. the difference between the inflation rates in two countries should equal the per cent change in the exchange rate.

C.inflation rates should be equal across countries.

D.the real exchange rate should equal one.

E.relative price levels in the two countries should be equal when expressed in the same currency.

4.Which of the following is NOT a valid explanation for the failure of purchasing power parity?

a. Differences in monetary policies across countries

b. Lack of competition

c. Transportation costs

d. Trade barriers

5.If P represents (the level of) domestic prices, P* represents (the level of) foreign prices and E represents the exchange rate as units of domestic currency per units of foreign currency, then the real exchange rate equals

a. EP/P*	b. P*/EP
C. E/PP*	d. EP*/P
e. P/P*

6.The difference between nominal and real interest rates is that

A.Nominal interest rates are measured in terms of a country's output, while real interest rates are measured in monetary terms

B.Nominal interest rates are measured in monetary terms, while real interest rates are measured in terms of a country's output

C.Nominal interest rates can fluctuate, while real interest rates always remain fixed

D.Real interest rates can fluctuate, while nominal interest rates always remain fixed

E.Real interest rates are the same in every country, while nominal interest rates are different for every country

7.Which of the following is predicted to cause the value (or price or cost) of U.S. goods to appreciate relative to the value (or price or cost) of foreign goods in the long run?

a. An increase in the growth rate of U.S. GNP. b. A decrease in the growth rate of U.S. GNP.

c. A decline in the growth rate of the U.S. money supply.

d. An increase in the price of petroleum that reduces world demand for American cars. e. An appreciation of the dollar.

jadewallaby469

1. In which market will a company arrange to receive currency for a transaction at a future date?

Select one:

a. the forward market

b. the currency futures market

c. the arbitrage market

d. the forward spot market

2. The U.S. dollar is overvalued and the peso is undervalued in the foreign exchange market

Select one:

a. if a visitor to Mexico from the United States can buy more goods in the United States
than he can buy in Mexico when he converts dollars to pesos.

b. if a visitor to Mexico from the United States can buy the same amount of goods in
Mexico as he can buy in the United States when he converts dollars to pesos.

c. if a visitor to Mexico from the United States can buy more goods in Mexico than he can
buy in the United States when he converts pesos to dollars.

d. if a visitor to Mexico from the United States can buy more goods in Mexico than he can
buy in the United States when he converts dollars to pesos.

3. Given the following data (t is current time; t+1 is time after one period)

E_t = Â¥ 110 = $1

E_t+1 = Â¥ 95 = $1

Current Interest rate in the US = i_US= 8%

If the interest parity condition is expected to hold, interest rates in Japan (i_Japan) should equal approximately:

Select one:

a. 3.38%

b. 8%

c. -5.64%

d. None of the above.

4. Suppose the Japanese interest rate is I% while the interest rate in Britain is 3%. Interest rate parity predicts that relative to the Japanese Yen,

Select one:

a. the British pound will depreciate by 4%.

b. the British pound will appreciate by 2%.

c. the British pound will depreciate by 2%.

d. the British pound will appreciate by 4%.

5. Suppose the U.S. grows more slowly than Canada. The best medium term prediction is that the

Select one:

a. U.S. interest rates will rise.

b. U.S. dollar will appreciate against the Canadian dollar.

c. U.S. dollar will depreciate against the Canadian dollar.

6. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) implies that

Select one:

a. In the long run, a forward exchange rate can purchase an interest rate swap for the same
price as the spot rate.

b. In the medium run, a forward exchange rate can purchase an interest rate swap for the
same price as the spot rate.

c. The short run, a given amount of money can buy the same amount of goods, whether
they are purchased at home or abroad.

d. the long run, a given amount of money can buy the same amount of goods, whether
they are purchased at home or abroad.

7. The current account balance will fall if

Select one:

a. the real exchange rate depreciates and disposable income goes up

b. the real exchange rate appreciates or disposable income goes up

c. the real exchange rate depreciates or disposable income goes down

d. the real exchange rate appreciates and disposable income goes down

8. A person who paid $10 for an umbrella in the U.S. sees the exact same umbrella in a store in London, England for 6 British pounds. If the person could expect the real exchange rate to be 1 U.S. umbrella per 1 English umbrella, then the person could infer that the nominal exchange rate is

Select one:

a. 0.6 U.S. dollars per 1 English pound.

b. 1.67 U.S. dollars per 1 English pound.

c. 0.6 English pounds per I U.S. dollar.

d. 1.67 English pounds per 1 U.S. dollar.

9. A U.S. wine merchant travelling in France has found a French wine of the same quality as a U.S. wine they regularly sell. She assumes that the real exchange rate should be 1 case of U.S. wine equals one case of French wine. The French wine merchant will sell her a case of the French wine for 350 euros. She knows that a case of the equivalent U.S. wine sells for $400. The euro is selling in France for $1.20. Assuming transportation costs are zero, the U.S. wine merchant should

Select one:

a. buy the French wine and sell it in the U.S. and make a profit.

b. buy the U.S. wine and sell it in France and make a profit.

c. It doesn't matter either way; there is no profit in the deal.

d. None of the above.

10. In a fixed exchange rate system, how do countries address the problem of currency market pressures that threaten to lower or raise the value of their currency?

Select one:

a. If demand falls, then countries must increase demand by buying up the excess supply
with domestic currency.

b. If demand rises, countries must fill the excess demand for foreign currency by selling
their reserves.

c. If demand rises, then countries can adjust the value of the exchange rate to the desired
level.

d. A and B only.

TRUE / FALSE

1. True False In the aggregate expenditures model presented in the textbook,

investment is assumed to rise with increases in real GDP and fall with decreases in real GDP.

2. True False When C + I_g = GDP in a private closed economy, S = I_g and there are no unplanned changes in inventories.

3. True False The risk-free interest rate is the rate on long-term U.S. government bonds.

4. True False Bond prices and interest rates are directly or positively related.

5. True False The public debt is the accumulation of all deficits and surpluses that have occurred through time.

6. True False The M₂ money supply may be larger or smaller than the M₁ money supply depending on the size of small-denominated time deposit balances and Money Market Mutual Fund balances held by individuals.

7. True False Excess reserves are the amount by which required reserves exceed actual reserves.

8. True False The public debt is held as Treasury bills, Treasury notes, Treasury bonds, and U.S. savings bonds.

9. True False The equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of real GDP occur at the intersection of the aggregate demand curve and the aggregate supply curve.

10. True False Investment is highly stable; it increases over time at a very steady rate.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

11. A recessionary expenditure gap is:

A. the amount by which the full-employment GDP exceeds the level of aggregate expenditures.

B. the amount by which equilibrium GDP falls short of the full-employment GDP.

C. the amount by which investment exceeds saving at the full-employment GDP.

D. the amount by which aggregate expenditures exceed the full-employment level of GDP.

12. The multiplier effect indicates that:

A. a decline in the interest rate will cause a proportionately larger increase in investment.

B. a change in spending will change aggregate income by a larger amount.

C. a change in spending will increase aggregate income by the same amount.

D. an increase in total income will generate a larger change in aggregate expenditures.

13. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?

There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.

B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.

C. There are 14 members of the Federal Reserve Board.

D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.

14. If the nominal interest rate is 18 percent and the real interest rate is 6 percent, the inflation rate is:

A. 18 percent.

B. 24 percent.

C. 12 percent.

D. 6 percent.

15.

Refer to the above diagram for a private closed economy. The equilibrium level of GDP is:

A. $400.

B. $300.

C. $200.

D. $100.

16. Which of the following represents the most expansionary fiscal policy?

A. a $10 billion tax cut

B. a $10 billion increase in government spending

C. a $10 billion tax increase

D. a $10 billion decrease in government spending

17.

Refer to the above table. The economy shown is a:

A. private economy.

B. private open economy.

C. mixed closed economy.

D. mixed open economy.

18. Currency held in the vault of First National Bank is:

A. counted as part of M₁.

B. counted as part of M₂, but not M₁.

C. only counted as part of M₁ if it was deposited into a checking account.

D. not counted as part of the money supply.

19. If the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies, we would expect:

A. the multiplier to decrease.

B. the country's exports and imports to both fall.

C. the country's net exports to rise.

D. the country's net exports to fall.

20. The most important determinant of consumption and saving is the:

A. level of bank credit.

B. level of income.

C. interest rate.

D. price level.

21. The multiple by which the commercial banking system can increase the supply of money on the basis of each dollar of excess reserves is equal to:

A. the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.

B. 1 minus the required reserve ratio.

C. the reciprocal of the income velocity of money.

D. 1/MPS.

22. Which one of the following would not shift the aggregate demand curve?

A. a change in the price level

B. depreciation of the international value of the dollar

C. a decline in the interest rate at each possible price level

D. an increase in personal income tax rate

23. The cyclically-adjusted budget tells us:

A. that in a full-employment economy the Federal budget should be in balance.

B. that tax revenues should vary inversely with GDP.

C. what the size of the Federal budget deficit or surplus would be if the economy was at full

employment.

D. the actual budget deficit or surplus realized in any given year.

24. The aggregate supply curve:

A. is explained by the interest rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.

B. gets steeper as the economy moves from the top of the curve to the bottom of the curve.

C. shows the various amounts of real output that businesses will produce at each price level.

D. is downsloping because real purchasing power increases as the price level falls.

25.

Refer to the above diagram. If the equilibrium price level is P₁, then:

A. aggregate demand is AD₂.

B. the equilibrium output level is Q₃.

C. the equilibrium output level is Q₂.

D. producers will supply output level Q₁

26. Discretionary fiscal policy refers to:

A. any change in government spending or taxes that destabilizes the economy.

B. the authority that the President has to change personal income tax rates.

C. intentional changes in taxes and government expenditures made by Congress to stabilize the economy.

D. the changes in taxes and transfers that occur as GDP changes.

27.

Refer to the above diagram. Which tax system has the most built-in stability?

A. T₄

B. T₃

C. T₂

D. T₁

28.

Refer to the given graph. A shift of the consumption schedule from C₁ to C₂ might be caused by a(n):

A.	recession.

B.	wealth effect of an increase in stock market prices.

C.	increase in income tax rates.

D.	increase in saving.

29. When a bank loan is repaid the supply of money:

A. is constant, but its composition will have changed.

B. is decreased.

C. is increased.

D. may either increase or decrease.

30. The Federal budget deficit is found by:

A. subtracting government tax revenues plus government borrowing from government spending in a particular year.

B. subtracting government tax revenues from government spending in a particular year.

C. cumulating the differences between government spending and tax revenues over all years since the nation's founding.

D. subtracting government revenues from the noninvestment-type government spending in a particular year.

31.

Refer to the above information. Money supply M₁ for this economy is:

A. $ 60.

B. $ 70.

C. $ 130.

D. $ 140.

32. Which of the following statements is true as a result of Federal Reserve efforts to rescue the financial industry from the financial crisis of 2007 and 2008?

From February 2008, to May 2009, the Fed oversaw the consolidation of 20 major financial institutions into fewer than a dozen.

B. From March 2008, to February 2009, the Fed experienced a 50 percent decline in the value of assets held.

C. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed assets more than doubled to nearly $2 trillion.

D. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed lending caused the U.S. public debt to rise by over $1 trillion.

33. Which of the following is the basic economic policy function of the Federal Reserve Banks?

holding the deposits or reserves of commercial banks

B. acting as fiscal agents for the Federal government

C. controlling the supply of money

D. the collection or clearing of checks among commercial banks

34. In a fractional reserve banking system:

A. bank panics cannot occur.

B. the monetary system must be backed by gold.

C. banks can create money through the lending process.

D. the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.

35.

Refer to the diagram that applies to a private closed economy. The APC is equal to 1 at income level:

36. Assume the Continental National Bank's balance statement is as follows:

Assuming a legal reserve ratio of 20 percent, how much in excess reserves would this bank have after a check for $10,000 was drawn and cleared against it?

A. $ 3,000

B. $ 24,000

C. $ 6,000

D. $ 16,000

37. Answer the question on the basis of the following table for a commercial bank or thrift:

Refer to the above table. When the legal reserve ratio is 25 percent, the excess reserves of this single bank are:

A. $0.

B. $1,000.

C. $5,000.

D. $30,000.

38. Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?

A. open market operations

B. changes in banking laws

C. changes in tax rates

D. changes in government spending

39. An increase in nominal GDP increases the demand for money because:

A. interest rates will rise.

B. more money is needed to finance a larger volume of transactions.

C. bond prices will fall.

D. the opportunity cost of holding money will decline.

40. Answer the next question on the basis of the following table:

At equilibrium in the above market for money, the total amount of money demanded is:

A. $500.

B. $480.

C. $460.

D. $440.

41. For most financial assets investors must be compensated for:

A. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk.

B. diversifiable risk and time preference.

C. non-diversifiable risk and time preference.

D. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk, and time preference.

42. Reserves must be deposited in the Federal Reserve Banks by:

A. only commercial banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System.

B. all depository institutions, that is, all commercial banks and thrift institutions.

C. state chartered commercial banks only.

D. federally chartered commercial banks only.

43.

Refer to the diagrams. Assuming a constant price level, an increase in aggregate expenditures from AE₁to AE₂ would:

A.	move the economy from A to C along AD₁.

B.	move the economy from C to A along AD₁.

C.	increase aggregate demand from AD₁ to AD₂.

D.	decrease aggregate demand from AD₂ to AD₁.

44. The discount rate is the interest:

A. rate at which the central banks lend to the U.S. Treasury.

B. rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks.

C. yield on long-term government bonds.

D. rate at which commercial banks lend to the public.

45. What concept describes how quickly an investment increases in value when interest is paid not only on the original amount invested, but also on the accumulated interest payments?

A. present value

B. future value

C. compound interest

D. real rate of interest

46. The aggregate demand curve:

A. is upsloping because a higher price level is necessary to make production profitable as production costs rise.

B. is downsloping because production costs decline as real output increases.

C. shows the amount of expenditures required to induce the production of each possible level of real output.

D. shows the amount of real output that will be purchased at each possible price level.

47. The Security Market Line depicts the relationship between the:

A. average expected rate of return on stocks and the average expected rate of return on bonds.

B. average expected rate of return of a financial asset and the discount rate.

C. risk level of a financial asset and the prime interest rate.

D. average expected rate of return and risk level of a financial asset.

48. Arbitrage causes all financial assets:

A. of the same risk level to have the same price.

B. to have the same expected rate of return.

C. to have the same beta.

D. of the same risk level to have the same average expected rate of return.

49.

Refer to the diagrams. The numbers in parentheses after the AD₁, AD₂, and AD₃ labels indicate the levels of investment spending associated with each curve. All figures are in billions. If the money supply is MS₁ and the goal of the monetary authorities is full-employment output Q_f, they should:

A.	increase the money supply from $80 to $100.

B.	increase the money supply from $80 to $120.

C.	maintain the money supply at $80.

D.	decrease the money supply from $80 to $60.

50. Given the expected rate of return on all possible investment opportunities in the economy:

A. an increase in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

B. a decrease in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

C. a change in the real interest rate will have no impact on the level of investment.

D. an increase in the real interest rate will increase the level of investment.

END OF THE EXAM

ECON 322 Lecture Notes - Lecture 7: Purchasing Power Parity, Real Interest Rate, Tariff

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