ECON 1 Lecture Notes - Lecture 30: Factor Cost, Hyman Minsky, Longrun
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1).
A consumer spends more time searching for a good when her reservation price is:
increased.
reduced.
fixed.
None of the statements is correct.
2).
In the game shown below, firms 1 and 2 must independently decide whether to charge high or low prices.
Which of the following are Nash equilibrium payoffs in the one-shot game?
(0, 0)
(5, -5)
(-5, 5)
(10, 10)
3).
A risk-neutral individual would:
prefer $5 with certainty to a risky prospect with the expected value of $5.
prefer a risky prospect with an expected value of $5 to a certain amount of $5.
be indifferent between a risky prospect with an expect value of $5 to a certain amount of $5.
prefer a risky prospect with the expected value of $0.50 to $5 with certainty.
4).
Snowpeak Ski Resort offers a price for a lift ticket that is barely over its marginal cost, but the high equipment rental fee keeps generating big profits. Which pricing strategy is the management using?
Price discrimination
Two-part pricing
Commodity bundling
Cross-subsidization
5).
The short run is defined as the time frame:
in which there are no fixed factors of production.
in which there are fixed factors of production.
less than one year.
less than three years.
6).
Fixed costs exist only in:
the long run.
capital-intensive markets.
the short run.
labor-intensive markets.
7).
Top of Form
Non-fed ground beef is an inferior good. In economic booms, grocery managers should:
increase their orders of non-fed ground beef.
reduce their orders of non-fed ground beef.
not change their orders of non-fed ground beef.
neither increase, reduce, nor maintain their current orders for non-fed ground beef.
Bottom of Form
8).
Which of the following pricing strategies is NOT used in markets with special cost and demand structures?
Peak-load pricing
Cross-subsidization
Transfer pricing
Low-price guarantees
9).
A perfectly competitive firm faces a:
perfectly elastic demand function.
perfectly inelastic demand function.
demand function with unitary elasticity.
None of the answers is correct.
10).
The special demand structure that induces a firm to use a cross-subsidization strategy is:
perfect substitution among products.
imperfect substitution among products.
independent demand for products.
interdependent demand for products.
11).
Which of the following factors reduces the need for government involvement in the marketplace?
The presence of externalities
The incentive to rent-seek
The need for public goods
Incomplete information
12).
Which of the following statements is true?
A mineral rights auction is not the same as a common-value auction.
An auctioneer is always indifferent between different kinds of auctions.
The Dutch and first-price, sealed-bid auctions are strategically equivalent.
An English auction always yields lower expected revenues than a second-price, sealed-bid auction.
13).
Which of the following is true concerning negative externalities?
Firms tend to produce more than the efficient level of output.
Society gains because firms do not pay the external costs of production.
Perfect competition is better than monopoly from the viewpoint of society even in the presence of negative externalities.
With negative externalities, a monopoly will always produce an output level less than is socially efficient.
14).
Which of the following is true under monopoly?
P > ATC
P > MC
P = MR
P = ATC
15).
Differentiated goods are NOT a feature of a:
perfectly competitive market.
monopolistically competitive market.
monopolistic market.
perfectly competitive market and monopolistic market.
16).
Producer surplus is measured as the area
below the demand curve and above the market price.
above the demand curve and below the market price.
above the supply curve and below the market price.
below the supply curve and above the market price.
17).
Jaynet spends $25,000 per year on painting supplies and storage space. She recently received two job offers from a famous marketing firm â one offer was for $105,000 per year, and the other was for $85,000. However, she turned both jobs down to continue a painting career. If Jaynet sells 30 paintings per year at a price of $9,000 each:
a. What are her accounting profits?
$
b. What are her economic profits?
$
18).
You are the manager of a monopoly that sells a product to two groups of consumers in different parts of the country. Group 1âs elasticity of demand is -2, while group 2âs is -4. Your marginal cost of producing the product is $40.
a. Determine your optimal markups and prices under third-degree price discrimination.
Instruction: Round your answers to two decimal places.
Markup for group 1:
Price for group 1: $
Markup for group 2:
Price for group 2: $
b. Which of the following are necessary conditions for third-degree price discrimination to enhance profits.
Instructions: You may select more than one answer. Click the box with a check mark for the correct answers and click twice to empty the box for the wrong answers. You must click to select or deselect each option in order to receive full credit.
| At least one group has elasticity of demand less than one in absolute value. | |
| There are two different groups with different (and identifiable) elasticities of demand. | |
| We are able to prevent resale between the groups. | |
| At least one group has elasticity of demand greater than 1 in absolute value. |
19).
You are the manager of a firm that receives revenues of $60,000 per year from product X and $80,000 per year from product Y. The own price elasticity of demand for product X is -1.5, and the cross-price elasticity of demand between productY and X is -1.4.
How much will your firm's total revenues (revenues from both products) change if you increase the price of good X by 2 percent?
Instructions: Round your answer to the nearest dollar. Include a minus (-) sign if applicable.
$
1) Which of the following transactions would be included in GDP?
a) The purchase of a Monet painting.
b) The purchase of paper clips.
c) The purchase of Telstra shares.
d) The purchase of a used car.
2) Economics is the study of
a) the choices everybody makes to attain their goals, given their scarce resources.
b) supply and demand.
c) how to make money in a market economy.
d) how to make money in the stock market.
3) The economy is considered to be at full employment when
a) all unemployment is voluntary.
b) all unemployment is frictional or structural.
c) there are no unemployed workers.
d) there are more unemployed workers than job vacancies
4) An example of an intermediate good would be
a) a can of cool drink sold by a super‐market.
b) a microwave used at home.
c) the bread that goes into a sandwich sold by a lunch bar.
d) the petrol purchased by consumers for their cars
5) From 2004 to 2005, the CPI for medical care increased from 260.8 to 272.8. What was the inflation rate for medical care?
a) 12 percent
b) 11.1 percent
c) 4.9 percent
d) 4.6 percent
6) A shift outwards of the nation's production possibility frontier can occur from
a) a reduction in unemployment.
b) an increase in the size of the labour force.
c) a change in the amounts of one good desired.
d) a natural disaster like a hurricane or severe earthquake
7) What assumptions about humans do economists make?
a) People are greedy and selfish.
b) None, because economics takes humans as given.
c) People are rational and respond to incentives.
d) Humans prefer to live in a society that values fairness above all else.
8) The labour force is the
a) a number of people employed minus the number of people unemployed.
b) ratio of the number of people employed by the number of people unemployed.
c) ratio of the number of people employed to the working-age population.
d) the number of people employed plus the number of people unemployed.
9) The production possibility frontier shows
a) attainable combinations of two products that may be produced with available resources.
b) the various products that can be produced now and in the future.
c) what an equitable distribution of products among citizens would be.
d) the rate of substitution between capital and labour.
10) Which of the following transactions would be included in the official calculation of GDP?
a) Bridgestone sells $2 million worth of tyres to General Motors Holden
b) You illegally download music off the Internet to put on your new iPod.
c) A new iPod.
d) A student buys a used textbook at the bookstore.
11) What are the three fundamental questions that any economy must answer?
a) What will be the prices of goods, how will these goods be produced, and who gets them?
b) What will be the prices of goods, what will be produced, and who gets them?
c) What will be produced, how will these goods be produced, and who gets them?
d) How much will be saved, what will be produced, and how can these goods be fairly distributed?
12) If the nominal interest rate is 6% and the inflation rate is 2%, then the real interest rate is
a) 3%.
b) 2%.
c) 4%.
d) 8%.
14) Suppose that a very simple economy produces three goods: movies, burgers, and bikes. Suppose the quantities produced and their corresponding prices for 2004 and 2009 are shown in the following table:
| 2004 | 2009 | |||
| Quantity | Price | Quantity | Price | |
| Movies | 20 | $6 | 30 | $7 |
| Burgers | 100 | $2 | 90 | $2.5 |
| Bikes | 3 | $1000 | 6 | $1100 |
What is real GDP in 2009, using 2004 as the base year?
a) $3690
b) $7035
c) $6360
d) $3320
15) If the production possibility frontier is graphed as a straight line, what does this mean?
a) Opportunity costs are constant as production shifts from one product to the other.
b) It is easy to efficiently produce output.
c) Nothing, there is no significance of a straight line production possibility frontier.
d) Opportunity costs are increasing as production shifts from one product to the other.
16) If you have both an economics exam and a management exam tomorrow, but find that you have time to fully study for only one of them, what are you facing?
a) A failing grade in both exams
b) A zero opportunity cost
c) A trade‐off
d) An impossible situation
17) Which of the following is a problem inherent in centrally planned economies?
a) Production managers do not satisfy consumer wants but the government's orders.
b) Too much production of low‐cost, high‐quality goods and services.
c) There are no problems, everyone, including consumers are satisfied.
d) None of these describe the problem inherent in a centrally planned economy.
18) Inflation is an increase in the
a) average hourly wage rate.
b) general price level in the economy.
c) the overall level of economic activity.
d) rate of growth of GDP.
19) Total production in the economy is measured as the
a) dollar value of all final goods and services produced in the economy.
b) the total number of services produced in the economy.
c) the total number of goods produced in the economy.
d) the total number of goods and services produced in the economy.
20) An increase in the price of dairy products produced domestically will be reflected in
a) Both the GDP deflator and the consumer price index.
b) Neither the GDP deflator nor the consumer price index.
c) The GDP deflator but not in the consumer price index.
d) The consumer price index but not in the GDP deflator.
21) The reason that opportunity cost arises is that
a) money has proven to be an inefficient means of facilitating exchange in a market.
b) sometimes there are no alternative decisions that can be made.
c) resources are limited at any point in time. d) people have unlimited wants.
21) You have an absolute advantage whenever you
a) are better educated than someone else.
b) can produce something at a lower opportunity cost than others.
c) can produce more of something than others with the same resources.
d) prefer to do one particular activity.
22) Which of the following is an example of a worker experiencing cyclical unemployment?
a) A Freightliner employee who was sacked because of a recession.
b) A worker who quits his job because he does not get along with his boss
c) A worker that changes jobs to move closer to her family.
d) An assembly line worker who loses his job because of automation.
23) A company named Home Depot sells new and used doors to contractors who build new homes. Home Depot also sells new and used doors to home‐owners. Which of the following would be counted in GDP?
a) The sale of a used door to a home‐owner
b) The sale of a used door to for construction for installation into a new home.
c) The sale of a new door to for construction for installation into a new home.
d) The sale of a new door to home‐owner.
24) If you buy shares, the dollar value is
a) not included in GDP.
b) included in GDP under consumer expenditure.
c) included in GDP as a business expense.
d) included in GDP under-investment.
25) During the 1930s, Australia and other industrialised countries experienced the Great Depression with a large number of workers and factories unemployed.Which of the following points on a production possibility frontier model would represent this experience?
a) A point on the frontier
b) A point inside the frontier
c) An increase in the opportunity cost of the substitution between capital and labour
d) A point outside the frontier
26) How is the decision about what goods and services will be produced made in a market economy?
a) The government decides on what will be produced.
b) Producing firms decide to produce only what the firms' owners say must be produced.
c) By consumers, firms, and government choosing which goods and services to buy.
d) What will be produced is determined by what society needs the most.
27) In the country of Shem, the CPI is calculated using a market basket consisting of 5 apples, 4 loaves of bread, 3 robes and 2 gallons of gasoline. The per‐unit prices of these goods have been as follows: Using 2002 as the base year, what was the inflation rate between 2003 and 2004?
a) 28.5 percent
b) 34.2 percent
c) 47 percent
d) It is impossible to determine without knowing the base year.
28) Given the following information, calculate the unemployment rate: Full‐time employed = 80 Part‐time employed = 25 Unemployed = 15 Discouraged workers = 5 Members of underground economy = 6 Consumer Price Index = 110
a) 18.8 per cent.
b) 12.5 per cent.
c) 16.7 per cent.
d) 25 per cent.
29) If the quantity of resources available is fixed, as more of a good is produced, the opportunity cost of producing it increases. The most probable reason for this is that
a) as more of a good is produced, the quality of technology available to produce additional units declines.
b) the price of the inputs used to produce the good will rise.
c) consumers are unwilling to pay higher prices to cover the increases in production costs.
d) resources are not equally well‐suited to producing all goods.
30) Which of the following is a normative statement?
a) The current high price of petrol is the result of strong worldwide demand.
b) The price of petrol is too high.
c) Larger vehicles always use more fuel per kilometre than smaller vehicles
d) The supply of petrol has not been able to meet the demand for petrol.
31) Transfer payments are not included in GDP because
a) they do not generate income.
b) their market value is difficult to measure.
c) they are not purchases of goods or services.
d) their value is included in government expenditure.
32) The opportunity cost of going to your economics class
a) depends on the cost of your transport getting to class.
b) is equal to the highest value of alternative use of the time.
c) is zero because there is no admission charged if you are enrolled in the class.
d) depends on the salary of the lecturer.
33) Establishing employment agencies that speeds up the process of matching unemployed workers with unfilled jobs are an attempt to lower
a) cyclical unemployment.
b) seasonal unemployment.
c) structural unemployment.
d) frictional unemployment.
34) Suppose that money GDP for 2009 was $15 000 billion and the price index was 150 and in 2010 money GDP was $17 050 billion with a price index of 155. What is the rate of economic growth?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 2%
d) 1%
35) An individual has a comparative advantage in activity whenever she
a) also has an absolute advantage in that activity.
b) can perform the activity at a lower opportunity cost than another person can.
c) can do everything better than everyone else can.
d) can do the activity in less time than anyone else.
36) GDP is not a perfect measure of wellbeing because
a) GDP is adjusted for increases in drug addiction.
b) GDP is not adjusted for the effects of pollution.
c) GDP is adjusted for changes in crime.
d) the value of leisure is included in GDP.
37) What does an entrepreneur do in a market economy?
a) Organise the factors of production in a working unit.
b) Stand to lose the personal funds provided.
c) Develop the vision for the firm and ensure funding for the firm.
d) An entrepreneur does all of these things.
38) An example of a transfer payment is
a) the purchase of a new government office block.
b) a teacher's pay is transferred electronically from the government to the teacher.
c) interest repayments on a loan.
d) an unemployment benefit.
39) Which of the following is a microeconomics question?
a) What will be the level of total production in the national economy?
b) How much income will be saved and how much will be spent on consumer goods?
c) What factors determine the price of computers in the market?
d) Why is the rate of unemployment rising?
40) The measure of production that values production using current prices is called
a) value-added GDP.
b) nominal GDP.
c) black economy GDP.
d) real GDP.
41) Which of the following causes the official measure of the unemployment rate to understate the true extent of joblessness?
a) People who collect unemployment benefits report themselves to be searching for a job.
b) Discouraged workers are counted as unemployed.
c) Discouraged workers are not counted as unemployed.
d) Many full-time workers really want to be part-time workers.
42) A production possibility frontier will shift inwards if
a) inefficiency in production processes arise.
b) there is an increase in the rate of unemployment.
c) productive resources are destroyed due to war.
d) all of these options are correct.
43) Structural unemployment would increase when
a) discouraged workers drop out of the workforce.
b) the economy enters a recession.
c) the number of individuals who quit their job to find another increase.
d) workers are replaced by machines and the workers do not have the skills to perform new jobs.
44) The 2005 CPI was 196 and the 1982 CPI was 96.5. If your parents put aside $1,000 for you in 1982, how much would you have needed in 2005 in order to buy what you could have bought with the $1,000 in 1982?
a) $1,834.20
b) $2,031.09
c) $2,308.89
d) None of the above is correct.
45) What is an economic model?
