ADM 1300 Lecture Notes - Lecture 1: Natural Environment, Blackboard, Dynamite Entertainment

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19 Nov 2016

School

University of Ottawa

Department

Administration

Course

ADM 1300

Professor

Gerard Brathwaite- Sturgeon

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ADM 1300 Full Course Notes

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Describe the complex and dynamic forces that make up the general. Identify characteristics of an organization environment, who are the important organizational stakeholders, and what competitive advantages encompasses. Identify who managers are and what they do. Describe the management process and how managerial skills and competencies are learned. Business: all profit seeking activities and enterprises that provide goods and services necessary to an economic system. Profits: rewards for business people who take the risks involved to offer goods (products) and services. A collection of people working together to achieve a common purpose. Organizations provide useful goods and/or services that return value to society and satisfy customer needs. Natural environment: nature and conditions of environment. Defined as the art and science of getting things accomplished through others in organizations. Top managers responsible for the performance of the organization as a whole or for one of its larger parts. Middle managers in charge of relatively large departments or divisions.

Related Questions

note: Working managers may complete this exercise based on the practices of their own organizations. Students may complete this exercise based on the practices of a current or previous employer. Instructions 1. Select and describe the boundaries of the system of interest; the term âorganizationâ will be used to refer to this selected system. You may select a team, a department, a small organization (e.g., an office practice), or an entire organization. 2. To familiarize yourself with the criteria, review the section called âCategory and Item Descriptionsâ in the Baldrige Criteria for Performance Excellence available from: www.nist.gov/baldrige/ publications/hc_criteria.cfm 3. The Organizational Assessment Worksheet provides a general description of the criteria category followed by selected questions from the respective 2011â2012 Health Care Criteria for Performance Excellence category. 4. Based on the system selected in question 1, write a brief reply to the selected questions. Briefly describe your organization, including its services; size; geographic community; key patient or customer groups; and current facilities, equipment, and technology, as well as the number of patients or clients it serves. Briefly describe your organizationâs key challenges and your organizationâs current performance improvement system. How do senior leaders deploy your organizationâs vision and values through your leadership system, to the workforce, to key suppliers and partners, and to patients and stakeholders as appropriate? How do senior leaders encourage frank two-way communication throughout the organization? How does your organization conduct strategic planning? Summarize your organizationâs action plans, how they are deployed, and key action plan performance measures or indicators. How do you identify patient, stakeholder, and market requirements for service offerings? How do you build and manage relationships with patients and stakeholders to meet their requirements and exceed their expectations at each stage of their relationship with you? What are your key organizational performance measures? How do you use these data and information to support organizational decision making and innovation? How do you assess your workforce capability and capacity needs, including skills, competencies, and staffing levels? How do you address workplace environmental factors to ensure and improve workplace health, safety, and security? How do you design and innovate your work processes to meet all the key requirements? How do you improve your work processes to improve healthcare outcomes, to achieve better performance, to reduce variability, and to improve healthcare services? Provide data for one key measure or indicator of healthcare outcomes that is important to your patients and stakeholders. Provide data for one key measure or indicator of patient or stakeholder satisfaction. Provide data for one key measure or indicator of financial performance. Provide data for one key measure or indicator related to operational performance. Provide data for one key measure related to achieving legal, regulatory, and accreditation requirements. Prioritizing Improvement Opportunities 1. Review the responses to the organizational assessment questions. 2. Note any questions for which you could not provide a response (i.e., the organization does not have a defined process or approach to address the topic of the question). 3. Review the organizational performance results data. 4. Select one or more measures that demonstrate less than desirable results. 5. Select one item from question 2 or 4 as the performance gap for the performance improvement exercise .

magentachinchilla174

Q1. Members are most likely to experience role conflict and divided loyalties in:
a. a cross-functional project team
b. a self-managed operational team
c. a traditional work team
d. an executive team

Q2. Which of the following was not mentioned as a primary determinant of performance for a functional team?
a. how long the current leader has been in that position
b. trust and cooperation among the team members
c. the organization and coordination of activities
d. member agreement about objectives and strategies

Q3. Which is not likely to improve the effectiveness of a self-managed team?
a. let members share in financial gains from improved performance
b. change the membership frequently to give the team fresh ideas
c. provide accurate, timely information relevant to team activities
d. give members training in interpersonal and problem solving skills

Q4. Which process is most likely to occur in an after-activity review?
a. determination of responsibility for errors and mistakes
b. recognition of members for their contributions to the team
c. analysis of what was done well and what needs to be changed
d. selection of the most qualified team leader for the next activity

Q5. Which type of activity is least likely to be delegated to a self-managed team?
a. evaluating each team member's task performance
b. firing a team member who has unsatisfactory performance
c. determining the work procedures to be used by the team
d. determining which team member will carry out each task

Q6. The primary responsibility of the leader of a decision group is to:
a. suggest good ideas for solving the problem
b. ensure that everybody has equal influence
c. encourage group members to reach an agreement quickly
d. structure the discussion in a systematic manner

Q7. The primary purpose of a dialogue session is to:
a. debate competing proposals and identify the best one for the team
b. help members learn more about each other's interests and aspirations
c. encourage members to express their dissatisfaction with each other openly
d. increase understanding of implicit assumptions and mental models

Q8. What was found in research on the effectiveness of self-managed teams?
a. productivity and quality improved substantially
b. organizational commitment usually increased
c. turnover and absenteeism were lower
d. the results were inconsistent across studies

Q9. Which condition is least important for the success of a new strategy?
a. it is based on the core competencies of the organization
b. it is compatible with significant changes in the external environment
c. it has a few clear themes relevant to the shared values of the members
d. it is similar to a strategy that was previously successful

Q10. Which of the following actions by the CEO is not likely to improve the effectiveness of an executive team?
a. clearly define objectives consistent with shared values of team members
b. talk with individuals whenever possible to reduce time in meetings
c. give the team considerable discretion but specify limits of team authority
d. rely more on advice from members with the most expertise

Q11. Which statement about institutionalization in organizations is most accurate?
a. it describes how subunits with expertise gain power in organizations
b. it makes it easier for organizations to adapt to a changing environment
c. it describes how people use power to gain more power
d. it demonstrates why political tactics are unnecessary to maintain power

Q12. What is the best summary of findings in research on leadership succession?
a. chief executives have little influence on organization performance due to the overwhelming influence of economic and market conditions
b. chief executives have a strong impact on organization performance and are the primary determinant of whether the organization prospers or declines
c. chief executives have a moderate impact on organizational performance when measured over a period of several years
d. chief executives influence stock prices but have little or no influence on the firm's actual economic performance

Q13. What pattern of behavior is least likely during the first few months on the job for the new CEO in an organization that is prosperous?
a. the CEO will quickly select a new strategy and make major changes in the organization to look like a confident and dynamic leader
b. the CEO will make changes in the functional areas in which he or she has the most prior experience
c. the CEO will attempt to demonstrate some small successes in dealing with immediate problems to build a favorable image and gain more discretion
d. the CEO will gather and analyze information about the organization and environment in order to determine an appropriate strategy

Q14. Which of the following was not given as a guideline for external monitoring?
a. examine a wide range of developments and trends in the environment
b. make an extra effort to learn what clients and customers want and need
c. identify both the strengths and weaknesses of competing products
d. rely primarily on your own intuition to analyze the environment

Q15. In what situation are executive teams least likely to be useful?
a. the organization includes several business units with diverse products
b. there is intense competition among executives to become the next CEO
c. the organization has a complex and turbulent environment
d. the executives in the team have very diverse backgrounds and perspectives

Q16. Which is not a core performance determinant in the flexible leadership theory?
a. process reliability and efficiency
b. leader experience and technical skills
c. human resources and relations
d. innovation and adaptation

Q17. Research at CCL indicates that the least amount of learning occurred for managers who had:
a. assignments for which they were well prepared
b. challenges they had to face alone
c. opportunities to make mistakes
d. diverse experiences with different types of challenges

Q18. Which statement about leadership development in organizations is least likely to be accurate:
a. leadership development should be consistent with organization strategy
b. developmental activities should be coordinated with formal training
c. self development activities should be maximized to reduce costs
d. leadership development should be integrated with succession planning

Q19. Which of the following usually includes a mix of formal training and learning from experience working on management projects?
a. mentoring
b. job rotation programs
c. action learning
d. behavior modeling

Q20. Which developmental method is most useful for helping managers to understand their inner feelings and values?
a. outdoor challenge programs
b. personal growth programs
c. mentoring programs
d. multisource feedback workshops

Q21. Which approach is used most often for improving leadership?
a. multi-source feedback workshops
b. formal mentoring programs
c. job rotation programs
d. formal training programs

Q22. What two methods are most useful for improving conceptual skills?
a. case analysis and behavior role modeling
b. feedback workshops and simulations
c. simulations and case analysis
d. behavior role modeling and feedback workshops

Q23. In most feedback workshops for management development, the primary source of information about a manager's behavior is:
a. other managers in the workshop who fill out a checklist
b. observers who record the person's behavior during a simulation
c. observation of a videotape taken of the manager doing regular work
d. questionnaires filled out by people with whom the manager works

Q24. Training programs to enhance leadership skills:
a. are widely used for managers in organizations
b. are seldom used for effective managers
c. are used mostly for department supervisors
d. are used mostly for top executives in large organizations

Q25. Which is least likely to be a reason for the "glass ceiling" in large organizations?
a. differences in leadership behavior displayed by men and women
b. implicit theories about the attributes required for effective leadership
c. popular stereotypes about the skills and traits of men and women
d. less encouragement and developmental opportunities for women

graybeaver288

Identify two categories of revenue for Panera Bread from the table in the article Revenue Recognition: Key differences between U.S. GAAP and IFRSs. Compare and contrast the companyâs current U.S. GAAP revenue recognition with the potential adoption of IFRS. Provide the IASB Framework or the IAS statement, the changes in revenue recognition as well as potential challenges the company may face in adoption.

Table:

Subject	U.S. GAAP	IFRSs
Concept/objective	realized or realizable and earned.	According to paragraph 83 of the IASB's Framework for the Preparation and Presentation of Financial Statements, revenue is recognized when (1) "it is probable that any future economic benefit" will flow to the entity and (2) such a benefit can be measured reliably. Further, paragraph 93 of the IASB Framework indicates that revenue normally must be earned before it can be recognized.
Definition of revenue	Paragraph 78 of FASB Concepts Statement No. 6, Elements of Financial Statements, defines revenue as "inflows or other enhancements of assets of an entity or settlements of its liabilities (or a combination of both) from delivering or producing goods, rendering services, or other activities that constitute the entity's ongoing major or central operations."	Paragraph 74 of the IASB Framework states, "The definition of income encompasses both revenue and gains. Revenue arises in the course of the ordinary activities of an entity and is referred to by a variety of different names including sales, fees, interest, dividends, royalties and rent." Paragraph 7 of IAS 18 defines revenue as "the gross inflow of economic benefits during the period arising in the course of the ordinary activities of an entity when those inflows result in increases in equity, other than increases relating to contributions from equity participants."
Sale of goods or products	SAB Topic 13 indicates that revenue from the sale of goods or products should not be recognized until it is earned and realized, or realizable. Revenue is generally earned and realized, or realizable, when all of the following conditions have been satisfied: There is persuasive evidence of an arrangement. Delivery has occurred (e.g., an exchange has taken place). The sales price is fixed or determinable. Collectibility is reasonably assured. In addition, ASC 605-15 provides guidance on product transactions that include a right of return. Further, various industry- and transaction-specific guidance is provided in other U.S. GAAP.	Under paragraph 14 of IAS 18, revenue from the sale of goods is recognized if all of the following conditions are met: The "entity has transferred to the buyer the significant risks and rewards of ownership of the goods." The "entity retains neither continuing managerial involvement to the degree usually associated with ownership nor effective control over the goods sold." The "amount of revenue can be measured reliably." "[I]t is probable that the economic benefits associated with the transaction will flow to the entity." The "costs incurred or to be incurred in respect of the transaction can be measured reliably."
Rendering services	>Like revenue from product sales, revenue from service transactions should not be recognized until it is earned and realized, or realizable. Revenue is generally earned and realized, or realizable, when all of the following conditions have been satisfied: There is persuasive evidence of an arrangement. Service has been rendered. The sales price is fixed or determinable. Collectibility is reasonably assured. Other than the limited guidance in >ASC 605-20, no specific guidance on the rendering of services exists under U.S. GAAP. The appropriate method for recognizing revenue in such transactions depends on the individual transaction but is usually based on the proportional performance as of the balance sheet date.	Paragraph 20 of IAS 18 states, "When the outcome of a transaction involving the rendering of services can be estimated reliably, revenue associated with the transaction shall be recognised by reference to the stage [i.e., percentage] of completion of the transaction at the balance sheet date." Paragraph 20 goes on to list specific conditions for determining whether an outcome of a transaction can be estimated reliably. And subsequent paragraphs provide guidance on determining the stage of completion. Paragraph 26 of IAS 18 states, "When the outcome of the transaction involving the rendering of services cannot be estimated reliably, revenue shall be recognised only to the extent of the expenses recognised that are recoverable."
Software arrangements	ASC 985-605 provides guidance on recognizing revenue in a software arrangement.	There is no specific guidance on software revenue recognition in IFRSs. An entity should apply the provisions of IAS 18 as appropriate.
Construction-type contracts	ASC 605-35 provides guidance on construction-type contracts. ASC 605-35-25-90 indicates that when the percentage-of-completion method is deemed inappropriate (e.g., when dependable estimates cause the outcome to be doubtful), the completed-contract method is preferable. ASC 605-35-25-25 through 25-27, the customer must approve the scope and price of change orders before the related revenue can be recognized.	IAS 11, Construction Contracts, provides guidance on construction-type contracts. Paragraph 32 of IAS 11 indicates that when the percentage-of-completion method is deemed inappropriate (e.g., when the outcome of the contract cannot be estimated reliably), revenue is recognized to the extent that costs have been incurred, provided that the costs are recoverable. Use of the completed-contract method is prohibited under IFRSs. Paragraph 13 of IAS 11 specifies that when it is probable that the customer will approve the scope and price of a change order, the related revenue can be recognized.
Milestone method	ASC 605-28 provides guidance on the application of the milestone method for recognizing revenue in research or development arrangements.	There is no specific guidance in IFRSs on the application of the milestone method for recognizing revenue in research or development arrangements.
Multiple-element arrangements	ASC 605-25 provides guidance on multiple-element revenue arrangements and establishes detailed criteria for determining whether each element may be separately considered for recognition. This guidance does not apply to arrangements or deliverables that are within the scope of other authoritative literature (e.g., ASC 985-605).	Paragraph 13 of IAS 18 indicates that the recognition criteria under IAS 18 are usually applied separately to each transaction unless either of the following conditions applies: "[I]t is necessary to apply the recognition criteria to the separately identifiable components of a single transaction in order to reflect the substance of the transaction." Two or more transactions "are linked in such a way that the commercial effect cannot be understood without reference to the series of transactions as a whole."
Bill-and-hold arrangements	The SEC staff lists specific criteria that must be met for revenue to be recognized in bill-and-hold arrangements before delivery of the product. (Non-SEC entities also use these revenue recognition criteria because no other authoritative guidance in U.S. GAAP addresses the accounting for these transactions.) The criteria restrict revenue recognition to limited circumstances.	Illustrative Examples to IAS 18 list criteria for recognizing revenue under bill-and-hold arrangements before delivery of the product. While the objective for recognizing revenue in bill-and-hold arrangements may be similar to that in U.S. GAAP, the criteria are not the same.
Gross versus net	ASC 605-45 provides guidance on whether to report revenue on the basis of the gross amount billed to the customer (as a principal) or the net amount retained by the company (as an agent).	Paragraph 8 of IAS 18 requires that revenue be reported on a net basis in agency relationships but does not provide specific guidance to consider. Improvements to IFRSs issued in April 2009) provides examples that indicate whether an entity is acting as a principal or as an agent.
Customer loyalty programs	Revenue recognition for customer loyalty programs is not specifically addressed in U.S. GAAP. (The EITF attempted to address this issue but did not reach a consensus.) Although entities account for customer loyalty programs in different ways, such programs are typically accounted for under ASC 605-25 as multiple-element arrangements or under an incremental-cost model.	IFRIC 13 indicates that customer loyalty programs are deemed multiple-element revenue transactions and that the fair value of the consideration received should be allocated between the components of the arrangement.
Rebates, discounts, incentives, and other consideration	ASC 605-50 indicates that consideration given by an entity to its customers is presumed to be a reduction of revenue unless an identifiable benefit whose fair value can be reasonably estimated is received.	Paragraph 10 of IAS 18 states that revenue "is measured at the fair value of the consideration received or receivable taking into account the amount of any trade discounts and volume rebates allowed by the entity." There is no specific guidance on other types of consideration given by an entity to its customers.
Specific industry and other guidance	Certain standards in U.S. GAAP provide specialized guidance on revenue recognition, including guidance that applies to specific industries and transactions.	IFRSs provide no (or limited) revenue recognition guidance that applies to specific industries or transactions.

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ADM 1300 Lecture Notes - Lecture 1: Natural Environment, Blackboard, Dynamite Entertainment

ADM 1300 Full Course Notes

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