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Answer: B.
Answer: C.
Answer: A.
Answer: C.
Answer: A.
Answer: B.

1.)The logistic equation assumes that

A. the per capita growth rate is a constant.
B. the per capita growth rate declines with increasing density.
C. populations will increase in size indefinitely.
D. Both a and c
E. None of the above

2. Which of the following would not be an example of density-dependent factors regulating population size?

A. The number of possible territories for robins is limited; thus when population sizes are high, a lower proportion of individuals can produce offspring.
B. In conditions of overcrowding, some desert pupfish living in ponds will emigrate to other ponds if given the opportunity.
C. In conditions of high density, mice are more susceptible to mortality from heat stress.
D. Predation on mosquitofish is high, regardless of population size.
E. All of the above are examples of density-dependent factors regulating population size.

3.) Which of the following statements is false?

A. The distribution of a species is the geographic area where individuals of that species are present.
B. The distribution of a species is a map of all areas where the abundance of the species is greater than zero.
C. Populations are dynamic entities that vary in size over time and space.
D. A population is a group of individuals from the same species that interact with one another within a particular area.
E. All of the above are true; none is false.

4.) Which of the following statements about populations is false?

A. If little is known about the distance that sexually reproducing organisms or their gametes move, the area that constitutes a single population is difficult to estimate.
B. Population abundances change over time and space.
C. A population may consist of a series of patches of individuals that are isolated in space but are connected by dispersal.
D. Most organisms have similar capacities for dispersal.
E. All of the above are true; none is false.
Answer: C.

24. Which of the following best explains why people living near higher latitudes generally have lighter skin than those living near the equator?

a.folic acid is reduced with regular sun exposure
b. vitamin D is formed when sun is absorbed by the skin
c. increased melanin (pigment) in the skin increases destruction of folic acid
d. low levels of folic acid can result in ineffective sperm
e. a and d

25. What best describes the above experimental results?
a. natural selection
b. artificial selection
c. inbreeding depression

26. Which statement about allele frequencies is NOT TRUE?
a. The sum of all allele frequencies at a locus is always l .
b. If there are two alleles at a locus and we know the frequency of one of them, we can obtain the frequency of the other by subtraction.
c. If an allele is missing from a population, its frequency in that population is 0.
d. If two populations have the same allele frequencies, they will have the same genotype frequencies it.
e. If there is only one allele at a locus, its frequency is 1.

27. Disruptive selection maintains a bimodal distribution of bill size in the West African seed cracker. Which of the following provides the best

explanation as to why this is so
a. bills of intermediate shapes are difficult to form.
b. the birds' two major food sources differ markedly in size and hardness.
c. males use their large bills in displays
d. migrants introduce different bill sizes into the population each year.
e. older birds need larger bills than younger birds.

28. Moles in Australia and North America both have sharp claws for digging and a highly developed sense of smell and are blind. However moles in

Australia are marsupials and in North America they are placental mammals. This is a strong example of?
a. a homoplasy
b. convergent evolution
c. a synapomorphy
d. a reversal
e. both a and b

31. Which of the following statements is NOT True with respect to human mate choice and the MHC complex
a. women that can discern heterozygosity in the MHC complex of men tend to have greater fitness
b. women detect this heterozygosity through the appearance cheek skin
c. men with more heterozygosity in their MHC genes are more susceptible to HIV and hepatitis
d. humans do not mate randomly with respect to their MHC complex genes
e. humans do not conform to Hardy Weinberg criteria with respect to MHC genes

32. In the above phylogeny which of the following is a paraphyletic group?
a. chimpanzees and mice
b. pigeons and crocodiles
c. lizards, crocodiles, pigeons and mice
d. both a and b

33.Which of the following is a monophyletic group?
a. chimpanzees and mice
b. pigeons and crocodiles
c. lizards, crocodiles, pigeons and mice
d. both a and b

34. A woman tests positive for HIV. She has no risk history aside from receiving an injection of vitamins from her doctor who is also her ex

boyfriend. Which of the following does NOT apply to this story?
a. knowledge gained from the study of evolutionary biology enabled the case to be solved
b. her HIV strain was similar to that of one of the doctor's patients
c. her HIV strain was similar to a group of individuals living in a different country d. HIV evolves quickly e. HIV undergoes many mutations

35. Why are sea squirts and frogs in the same phylum?
a. they both live near or in water
b. they have experienced convergent evolution
c. they both have notochords at some stage in development
d. they share synapomorphies
e. both c and d

36. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. In bacteria there is a cost to resistance
b. antibiotic resistant bacteria divide more quickly than non resistant bacteria
c. snakes resistant to tetrodotoxin are selected for when there are no newts around
d. snakes resistant to tetrodotoxin are slower after they eat than nonresistant snakes. e. both b and c

47. The ratites are a group of flightless birds comprising the ostrich, emu, cassowaries, rheas, and kiwis. All share certain morphological

similarities (such as a breastbone without a keel) not found in other birds, but they live on different continents. In the past, some ornithologists

regarded their similarities as homoplasies, but they are now thought to be synapomorphies. Based on this information, you would conclude that the

a. characteristics mentioned are the result of convergent evolution
b. share a common ancestor
c. characteristics mentioned are the result of reversals
d. share homologous traits
e. both b and d

49. On an island there are 9 closely related species of frogs. 3 of the species have spots and 6 of them don't. Which of the following is NOT true?

a. The principle of parsimony would be used to determine if spots were an ancestral trait for the 9 species.
b. if the 6 that don't have spots are all in the same branch (clade) it is possible that spots were lost
c. if the 3 that do have spots are all in one branch (clade) it is possible that spots were gained and ancestors lacked spots.
d. the ancestral trait has to be no spots because 6 species lack spots and only 3 have them.

Answer: D.
Answer: A.
Answer: C B C D C
Answer: A.
Answer: D.
Answer: A.

1. What is common between Retroviruses and transposable elements? a. Both are proteins b. Both are RNAs c. Both have terminal repeats d. Both cause diseases e. None of the above

2. In HIV protease activity is associated with a. env gene b. pol gene c. gag d. onc gene e. none of the above

3. In HIV __________protein autoregulates its transcription? a. LT b. ICP4 c. Tat d. none of the above

4. EA2 is one the adenoviral protein and is expressed during a. Immediate early phase b. Early phase c. Late d. All of the above

5. Which of the following SV40 protein(s) can cause transformation of primary cells? a. T b. t c. E2A d. E2B e. All of the above

6. Influenza virus genome is a. –RNA b. + RNA c. ssDNA d. dsDNA

7. Stool specimens from infants should most likely be tested positive for __________ virus. a. Rotavirus b. Retrovirus c. Herpesvirus d. West Nile virus

8. Both HIV an Sindbis are +RNA viruses. What is common in their transcription? a. both transcribe only one mRNA for all proteins b. both transcribe a subgenomic mRNA for capsid proteins c. both are retroviruses d. all of the above

9. Which of the cellular RNA polymerases transcribe viral genes? a. RNA pol I b. RNA pol II c. RNA Pol III d. a and b e. b and c

10. Poliovirus genome is a. –RNA b. + RNA c. ssDNA d. dsDNA

11. RNA pol II transcriptional control elements include which of the following a. A core promoter consisting of TATA sequence and initiator b. Local regulatory sequences c. Distant (up to 10,000 bp away) regulatory sequences d. A promoter e. All of the above

12. Which of the following is correct concerning proteins that regulate transcription? a. They include sequence-specific activator proteins that bind promoter elements b. They include co-activators which do not bind DNA c. They may have multiple protein domains d. All of the above

13. Adenovirus E1A protein stimulating the expression of adenovirus E2 protein which then stimulates the expression of adenovirus Iva2 & L4 protein is an example of: a. A negative autoregulatory loop b. Repression of gene expression c. Cascade regulation d. Dimerization

14. Which statement about polyadenylation of DNA virus mRNAs is correct? a. It always occurs in the cytoplasm b. It occurs after cleavage of pre-mRNA c. Poly(A) is added at the 5’-end of pre-mRNA d. Is specified by a stretch of U residues in the template

15. Integration of retroviral DNA has which of the following properties? a. Catalyzed by a viral enzyme b. Occurs on all chromosomes but preferentially at sites that are bent or underwound because of being wrapped around a nucleosome c. Leads to the formation of a provirus d. Leads to the production of viral mRNAd by host pol II e. All of the above

16. Which of the following statements about retroelements is not correct? a. There are many copies in eukaryotic genomes b. They are currently entering the Koala germline c. Those in the human genome produce infectious viruses d. They can be beneficial e. None of the above

17. Reverse transcriptase has revolutionized molecular biology. Which statement about the enzyme is not correct? a. RT is unique to retroviruses b. RT is packaged in the retrovirus particle c. The RT protein also has RNAse H activity d. The name of the enzyme comes from its ability to reverse the flow of genetic information e. Might have bridged the ancient RNA world and the DNA worlds

18. Which of the following steps occur during reverse transcription of retroviral genomic RNA? a. Priming of (-) DNA synthesis by tRNA b. Two template exchanges c. Degradation of the viral RNA by RNAse H d. Generation of two LTRs e. All of the above

19. Compared to retroviruses, hepatitis B viruses a. Do not make a provirus b. Do not prime reverse transcription with RNA c. Do not require integrase d. Do not carry out reverse transcription during entry e. All of the above

20. Which is incorrect about the 5’-cap on mRNA? a. It consists of m7G joined to second nucleotide of mRNA by an unusual 5’-5’ phosphodiester linkage b. It is present on most cellular mRNAs c. It is required for efficient translation by 5’end dependent initiation d. It binds the cap-binding protein eIF4E e. It is found on mRNA but not pre-mRNA

Answer: D C A C
Answer: C C B D
Answer: D.
Answer: D.

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