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RupaRajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences - RGUHS

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Jennifer Williams is a 43-year-old recently divorced female who has two teenage daughters aged 18 and
16 years. Her 16-year old daughter is 7 months pregnant. Jennifer's ex-husband is an alcoholic and is
involved with her daughters but cannot be relied on for financial assistance. She lives in an older home
in a low-income neighborhood. Her aging and widowed mother, who lives a few blocks away, is in the
early stages of Alzheimer's disease and needs regular assistance. Ms. Williams is the main caregiver for
her mother. She is employed full-time as an office assistant and regularly has difficulty making ends
meet financially.

A number of recent events have been challenging for Jennifer. Her pregnant daughter recently broke up
with her boyfriend and Jennifer knows she will be largely supporting and raising her grandchild. She also
recently had an intense argument with her oldest daughter about attending college—something she
supports but can't afford. In addition to all of these issues, Jennifer's mother fell and broke her arm. She
is now trying to meet the increasing care her mother needs.

All these events have been weighing heavily on Jennifer's mind. She is feeling highly anxious and is
experiencing difficulty sleeping. She has had intermittent diarrhea and has become highly irritable,
leading to arguments at work with her coworkers. Jennifer also began experiencing headaches. Fearing
she had something seriously wrong with her, she went to an urgent care clinic. After a brief visit focusing
on her headache, she was told not to worry because she was “only experiencing a tension headache”
and was a little hypertensive, and she was advised to see her primary care physician. Jennifer was
relieved to learn she did not have a brain tumor, but she has no intention of seeing another physician for
the headaches. She does not want to spend any more money on herse

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How many calories in that fast-food meal? Ontario menu labelling legislation takes effect
Jan. 1
CBC News · Posted: Dec 29, 2016
Restaurant-goers in Ontario are going to notice a little extra something on some menus as of Jan.
1: calorie counts.
Legislation that comes into effect Sunday under the Healthy Menu Choices Act, 2015 requires
that all restaurants with 20 or more locations must clearly display the caloric information for any
food and drink items.
Not only will the information have to be on menus, but it will also need to be clearly displayed
on menu boards and even on restaurant apps. Hospitals, schools, daycares and correctional
institutions are exempt.
The Heart and Stroke Foundation supports the initiative, believing that providing people with
more information helps them make better choices.
"Menu labelling is one small thing that empowers parents and empowers Ontarians to take
control of the choices that they make when they're having lunch or dinner at a restaurant," said
Joe Belfontaine, executive director of the Ontario branch of the Heart and Stroke Foundation.
"Certainly it's not the end-all or be-all, but it's an important tool in the toolbox."
Although Ontario is the first province in the country to require nutritional labelling at restaurants,
Belfontaine said that he hopes other provinces will follow suit.
Will it make a difference?
Whether including caloric counts will have any lasting health benefits, however, is questionable.
New York City has had food labelling requirements at restaurants since 2008. Since then,
researchers have attempted to ascertain whether it's made a difference to the city's population.
Calories of each food item appear on a McDonald's drive-thru menu in New York City. The city
made it mandatory for restaurants to display nutritional information since 2008. (Associated
Press)
A 2012 study in the American Journal of Public Health concluded posting calories on foods had
no direct impact on what foods people chose to buy. Over time, it appeared that people simply
ignored the labelling altogether.
A more recent study from Tulane University suggested that the New York City mandate
"plausibly reduced the obesity rate by 2.5 percentage points."
Dr. Sean Wharton, an internal medicine specialist who also runs a weight management and
diabetes clinic in Toronto, believes that the move is a positive one by the government, 
particularly for those who are paying close attention to their nutrition. However, it's likely a
different story for the general population.
"From an overall population level, I'm not so sure it'll have the big impact that we're actually
looking for," Wharton said.
"I don't think it's going to decrease weight from a population basis, but I think an informed
consumer is better at making choices and making judgements."
Wharton also noted that data supporting the idea of health benefits from such labelling is weak.
As well, he said, no studies have found that nutrition intake is any better in a general population
when such measures are undertaken.
While the evidence may be slim for a smaller waistline associated with menu labelling, experts
believe that it's important that people make informed decisions.
"I think it's important for consumers to have choice," Belfontaine said. "I think it's important for
consumers to have the right information."

 

Requiring restaurants to put calorie counts on menus is an example of which mechanism of policy

  •  A. Exhortation
  •  B. Expenditure
  •  C. Taxation
  •  D. Regulation
  •  E. Public Ownership

Dr Wharton suggests that “an informed consumer is better at making choices and making judgements.” What ethical principle does this represent?

  •  A. Autonomy
  •  B. Non-maleficence
  •  C. Beneficence
  •  D. Justice
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1. The nurse working in a long-term care facility incorporates a focused assessment of
the immune system for all newly admitted patients over the age of 65. Older adults

are more likely to develop problems related to immune function than are middle-
aged people. The focused immune assessment includes a systemic approach based

on age-related changes in immunologic function. (Learning Objective 4)
a. What changes in the immune system in the older adult increase the incidence of
infection and cancer in this population?
b. Explain why older adults may have decreased inflammatory responses.
c. Why are older adults at increased risk of gastroenteritis and diarrhea secondary
to proliferation of intestinal organisms?

2. The nurse educator for an oncology unit is preparing an in-service presentation for
new nurses about the care of patients with immunodeficiencies. Patients with cancer
who are receiving chemotherapy, as well as those with bone marrow transplants, are
immunocompromised and require special attention to assess for signs of infection.
The nurse educator focuses on special care needs of this patient population.
a. What is the rationale for assessing the pulse and respiratory rates for 1 full
minute in a patient with immunodeficiency?
b. What special precautions about dietary restrictions and food preparation should
be included in the teaching for a patient with immunodeficiency?
c. What nursing actions should be implemented to decrease the risk of infection in
the patient with immunodeficiency?
3. Molly Baker, a 22-year-old patient, presents to the clinic with the diagnosis of
allergic rhinitis. She states that she develops paroxysmal sneezing, clear nasal
drainage and congestion, watery, red eyes, and nasal itching from the late spring
until the first frost in the fall. She states that she has a dry cough and voice
hoarseness. She complains of feeling extremely tired, unable to sleep at night, and
having difficulty concentrating on her collegiate course work.
a. What further assessment should the nurse provide?

  1. Ellie Long, a 55-year-old patient, presents to the pain clinic with the diagnosis of
    fibromyalgia syndrome. The nurse at the clinic obtains a history and physical
    assessment of the patient. (Learning Objective 2)
    a. On what areas should the nurse concentrate when interviewing the patient
    during the history process?
    b. On what areas should the nurse concentrate when assessing the patient?
    c. What diagnostic tests are used with fibromyalgia syndrome?
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Acute Respiratory Failure Clinical Judgement Activity

Ā 

1. Which of the following statements best describes oxygenation failure?

Ā 

A. Impaired gas exchange occurs at the alveolar level causing insufficient oxygenation of pulmonary blood.

B. Altered air movement causes inadequate oxygen intake.

C. Occurs when chest pressure does not change enough to allow adequate air movement.

D. Results from a physical problem of the lungs or chest wall or respiratory center of the brain.

Ā 

2. Which of the following statements best describes ventilation failure?

Ā 

A. Pulmonary perfusion is normal, but ventilation is inadequate, leading to impaired gas exchange.

B. Chest pressure changes are normal and air movement is adequate, but pulmonary blood not oxygenated sufficiently.

C. Caused by a right-to-left shunting of blood in the pulmonary vessels

D. Results from hyperventilation.

Ā 

3. The nurse knows which of the following clients are at risk for developing combined

ventilatory and oxygenation respiratory failure?

Ā 

A. A client with a history of consuming three alcoholic beverages per week .

B. A client with a history of smoking and has a diagnosis of asthma.

C. A client with a history of sleep apnea and obesity.

D. A client with a history of anemia and recently diagnosed with pneumonia.

Ā 

4. The nurse is caring for a client with ventilatory failure. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the differences between intrapulmonary and extrapulmonary causes of ventilatory failure?

Ā 

A. Intrapulmonary causes of ventilatory failure may be caused by neuromuscular disorders.

B. Airway diseases, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), can cause extrapulmonary ventilation failure.

C. Intrapulmonary causes of ventilation failure may result in a perfusion/ventilation mismatch.

D. A client suffering from a catastrophic stroke is at risk for developing intrapulmonary ventilation failure.

Ā 

5. Acute respiratory failure (ARF) is defined by which of the following blood gas values:

Ā 

A. PaO2 80mm Hg, PaCO2-45mm Hg, pH-7.40, SaO2-92%

B. PaO2 90mm Hg, PaCO2-35mm Hg, pH-7.45, SaO2-89%

C. PaO2 65mm Hg, PaCO2-40mm Hg, pH-7.35, SaO2-90%

D. PaO2 55mm Hg, PaCO2-50mm Hg, pH-7.30, SaO2-85%

Ā 

6. Clients that present with acute respiratory failure always have which abnormal vital sign reading?

Ā 

A. Hypertension

B. Bradycardia

C. SaO2 less than 90%

D. PaO2 greater than 90 mmHg

Ā 

7. The nurse is caring for a client admitted with pneumonia and recent weight loss. The clientā€™s current vital signs are HR-100, BP-125/78, RR-30, SpO2-89%, Temperature-100.0 oral. What is the nurseā€™s priority action?

Ā 

A. Consult home health

B. Administer oxygen therapy

C. Ensure adequate nutrition

D. Administer antibiotic therapy

Ā 

Ā 

P.R., a 61-year-old woman who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is being admitted to your unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia and acute respiratory failure. Ā She was endotracheally intubated orally in the emergency room and placed on mechanical ventilation. Ā Her vital signs are BP 112/68, HR 134, Temp 101.0 degrees with aSpO2 of 53%. Ā Her ventilator settings are synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation of 12 breaths/min, tidal volume 700ml, FiO2 50% and positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cmH2O.

Ā 

Chart View

pH

7.28

PaCO2

62 mmHg

HCO3

26 mmol/L

PaO2

48 mmHg

SpO2

53%

Ā 

8. The Ā arterial blood gas (ABG) results drawn in the emergency room before intubation are sent to you. Ā Interpret P.R.ā€™s ABG results. Fill in the blank_____________________________

Ā 

9. After intubation, the nurse knows that which of the following most accurately determines appropriate endotracheal tube placement? Select all that apply.

Ā 

A. Endotracheal cuff pressure

B. Abdominal sounds

C. End-tidal carbon dioxide level

D. Arterial blood gasses

E. Chest x-ray

Ā 

10. Endotracheal tube placement has been verified at 2cm above the carina. P.R.ā€™s SpO2 is currently 60%. The nurse anticipates which of the following interventions?

Ā 

A. Physician decreases the FiO2 from 80% to 50%.

B. Manual Ambu-bag ventilation with 100% oxygen.

C. Physician decreases PEEP to 3 cmH2O.

D. Document the level of the endotracheal tube at the lips.

Ā 

11. The nurse caring for P.R. is reviewing orders related to mechanical ventilation. Which of the following nursing interventions incorporate best practice for the care of the mechanically ventilated client? Ā Select all that apply

Ā 

A. Perform mouthcare every four hours.

B. Perform respiratory assessment at least every four hours.

C. Apply restraints first to prevent accidental dislodgement of the endotracheal tube.

D. Avoid the use of sedative medications to prevent decreased level of consciousness.

E. Avoid turning the client to prevent dislodgment of endotracheal tube.

F. Assess the clientā€™s mouth around the endotracheal tube for pressure injuries.

Ā 

12. P.R.ā€™s son arrives at the bedside. As the nurse is updating the son, the high-pressure alarm on the ventilator sounds. The son appears frightened by the sound. Which of the following statements made by the nurse can provide reassurance and education to the son?

Ā 

A. Ā ā€œYour mom may need suctioning to remove secretions and the ventilator is letting us know so we can assess her.ā€

B. ā€œYour momā€™s ventilator tubing connections may have come undone and the ventilator is letting us know so we can assess her.ā€

C. ā€œYour momā€™s endotracheal tube cuff may be leaking, and the ventilator is letting us know so we can assess her.ā€

D. ā€œ Your mom is not taking any spontaneous breaths at the moment and the ventilator is letting us know so we can assess her.ā€

Ā 

13. During multidisciplinary rounds, the physician adjusts P.R.ā€™s tidal volume and FiO2 settings. The nurse knows that tidal volume and FiO2 represent (Select all that apply):

Ā 

A. The volume of air the client receives with each breath.

B. The oxygen delivered to the client.

C. The pressure at the end of expiration to gas exchange.

D. The speed at which each breath is delivered.

E. The pressure used by the ventilator to deliver a breath.

Ā 

14. After P.R.ā€™s FiO2 is increased to 100%, the SpO2 remains 75%. The nurse identifies this as ____________ ____________(a cardinal feature of acute respiratory distress syndrome [ARDS]). Fill in the blank.

Ā 

15. The nurse understands that the most likely cause of P.Rā€™s development of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is:

Ā 

A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

B. Pneumonia

C. Ventilator-associated lung injury (VALI)

D. Barotrauma

Ā 

16. What signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to assess in the client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? Select all that apply

Ā 

A. Dyspnea

B. Diffuse haziness appearance of the lungs on chest x-ray

C. Elevated PaO2

D. Normothermia

E. Cyanosis

Ā 

17. Over the next eight hours, P.R. begins to display retractions, respiratory rate is 34 breaths per minute, and a chest x-ray revealed a ā€œwhited outā€ appearance. Ā The nurse anticipates moving P.R. into which position?

Ā 

A. Supine

B. Prone

C. Trendelenburg

D. Reverse Trendelenburg

Ā 

Two hours after moving P.R. into the desired position, P.R.ā€™s ABGs are as follows:

Chart View

pH

7.30

PaCO2

52 mmHg

HCO3

22 mmol/L

PaO2

70 mmHg

SpO2

88%

Ā 

18. Interpret the above ABGs. Fill in the blank___________________________________

Ā 

19. P.R.ā€™s respiratory status is improving. True or False

Ā 

20. Because P.R. was diagnosed with pneumonia, the healthcare provider orders antibiotic therapy. The nurse knows which of the following must be obtained for appropriate antibiotic selection?

Ā 

A. Urine culture and sensitivity

B. Sputum culture and sensitivity

C. Lateral chest x-ray

D. Pulmonary function test

Ā 

Ā 

21. The pharmacy sends ceftriaxone IV 1g in 100 mL 0.9% Normal Saline with instructions to infuse over 40 minutes. At how many mL/hr would the nurse regulate the IV infusion pump? (Round to the nearest whole number). Make sure to show your work for full credit.

Ā 

Ā 

Ā 

Due to P.R.ā€™s history of COPD, the prescriber orders albuterol inhaler 3 mL every 6 hours.

Ā 

22. What is an adverse effect associated with the use of albuterol? (Select all that apply)

a. Tachycardia
b. Hypotension
c. Tremors
d. Chest pain
e. GI distress.
f. Weight gain

Ā 

23. Select the following correct statements about preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) when caring for P.R. or a similar patient receiving mechanical ventilation with an endotracheal tube (ETT). Select all that apply.

Ā 

A. No interruption of sedation to avoid undue stress for patient. Ā 

B. Perform hand hygiene only when hands are visibly soiled.

C. Perform oral care every 2 hours.

D. Maintain HOB at 15 degrees at all times.

E. Discuss need for antibiotic therapy as preventive measure with physician.

F. Administer scheduled pantoprazole 40mg IV push daily.

G. When providing suctioning, itā€™s only necessary to maintain clean technique.

Ā 

Ā 

Ā 

Ā 

Ā 

Ā 

24. The nurse knows that which of the following ventilator-associated events (VAEs) can occur due to positive pressure that decreases blood return to the heart?

Ā 

A. Stress ulcers

B. Barotrauma

C. Volutrauma

D. Hypotension

Ā 

Ā 

After a period of time on the ventilator, P.R.ā€™s condition improves, and the healthcare provider determines she can be weaned from mechanical ventilation. After a spontaneous breathing trial, the provider orders for the client to be extubated.

Ā 

25. The nurse performs which of the following interventions in preparation for removal of the endotracheal tube?

Ā 

A. Avoid suctioning prior extubation to prevent hypoxemia.

B. Advise the client to avoid coughing after removal of endotracheal tube.

C. Assess vital signs every five minutes immediately after extubation.

D. Allow the client to talk on the phone as much as desired.

Ā 

26. The nurse is aware that which of the following is a late sign of a narrowed airway?

Ā 

A. Mild dyspnea.

B. Coughing.

C. High-pitched sound during inspiration.

D. Inability to expectorate secretions.

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